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*silently continues to watch in interest*
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Our pastor believes this. I don't really understand what it is. Can someone please explain this to me and how they come to that conclusion?
Another thing i've considered is the days of creation are based on the first morning and evening not the fourth day and evening .
this would allow for the conditions of the "Pangea Paradigm" to have happened
Gen 1:28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth.
Rev 21:11 Having the glory of God: and her light was like unto a stone most precious, even like a jasper stone, clear as crystal;
Rev 21:18 And the building of the wall of it was of jasper: and the city was pure gold, like unto clear glass.
Rev 21:19 And the foundations of the wall of the city were garnished with all manner of precious stones. The first foundation was jasper; the second, sapphire; the third, a chalcedony; the fourth, an emerald;
Rev 21:20 The fifth, sardonyx; the sixth, sardius; the seventh, chrysolite; the eighth, beryl; the ninth, a topaz; the tenth, a chrysoprasus; the eleventh, a jacinth; the twelfth, an amethyst.
Rev 21:21 And the twelve gates were twelve pearls; every several gate was of one pearl: and the street of the city was pure gold, as it were transparent glass.
Eze 28:13 Thou hast been in Eden the garden of God; every precious stone was thy covering, the sardius, topaz, and the diamond, the beryl, the onyx, and the jasper, the sapphire, the emerald, and the carbuncle, and gold: the workmanship of thy tabrets and of thy pipes was prepared in thee in the day that thou wast created.
Isa 45:18 For thus saith the LORD that created the heavens, He is God; that formed the earth and made it, He established it, He created it not a waste, He formed it to be inhabited: I am the LORD, and there is none else.
E. If the "Gap Theory" is Not True --- When did the fall of Lucifer take place?
4. In 1814, Thomas Chalmers, a leading Scottish theologian, taught the gap theory --- Charles Darwins book, "Origin of the Species," was not published until 1859, 45 years later.
5. Arthur Custance, in his book "Without Form and Void", shows that this interpretation has its roots in early Jewish tradition and through out the history of the church.
6. It is safe to say that the gap theory was not developed in an effort to solve apparent problems between the Bible and Science. It is not of recent origin and can easily be traced back to beyond the 19th century.
In verse two we see that this creation "became" without form and void. Hence the gap. The "gap" is the answer to the question "what happened" between verse one and verse two that caused the earth to get all messed up from it's former condition.
I don't buy it. I've never heard of it before and it seems to hang on the word "became" that didaskalos quotes below.
I just read the ASV, CEV, DRB, ESV, GNB, GW, KJV, KJVR, LITV and MKJV versions and it doesn't say it "became" in any of those versions.
The Hebrew word it comes from is: H1961
היה
hâyâh
haw-yaw'
A primitive root (compare H1933); to exist, that is, be or become, come to pass (always emphatic, and not a mere copula or auxiliary): - beacon, X altogether, be (-come, accomplished, committed, like), break, cause, come (to pass), continue, do, faint, fall, + follow, happen, X have, last, pertain, quit (one-) self, require, X use.
There is no such thing as "tense" in biblical Hebrew. (Modern Hebrew, on the other hand, does have tenses.) Biblical Hebrew is not a "tense" language. Modern grammarians recognize that it is an "aspectual" language. This means that the same form of a verb can be translated as either past, present, or future depending on the context and various grammatical cues. The most well known grammatical cue is the "vav-consecutive" that makes an imperfective verb to refer to the past.
Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the Earth. 2 And it came to pass that the Earth became a wasteland, empty and chaotic; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.
Gen 2:7 Then the LORD God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul.
Gen 4:3 And in process of time it came to pass, that Cain brought of the fruit of the ground an offering unto the LORD.
2 Now the earth was [a] formless and empty, darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was hovering over the waters.
a.Genesis 1:2 Or possibly became
I don't buy it. I've never heard of it before and it seems to hang on the word "became" that didaskalos quotes below.
I just read the ASV, CEV, DRB, ESV, GNB, GW, KJV, KJVR, LITV and MKJV versions and it doesn't say it "became" in any of those versions.
The Hebrew word it comes from is: H1961
היה
hâyâh
haw-yaw'
A primitive root (compare H1933); to exist, that is, be or become, come to pass (always emphatic, and not a mere copula or auxiliary): - beacon, X altogether, be (-come, accomplished, committed, like), break, cause, come (to pass), continue, do, faint, fall, + follow, happen, X have, last, pertain, quit (one-) self, require, X use.
One problem I have with gap theory is that it would mean death entered the creation before man sinned. I can't make sense of that.
I note that in the list of words used when translating "hayah" there are 14 instances of "wast" in the KJV. In modern English - was.