Galatians 2:16

[HIM]

Most translations of this text translate the clause highlighted below with bold emphasis as shown here from the KJV.

Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

That is incorrect. It should be as these translations are. Do you see and understand the difference.

Gal 2:16 (YLT) having known also that a man is not declared righteous by works of law, if not through the faith of Jesus Christ, also we in Christ Jesus did believe, that we might be declared righteous by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law, wherefore declared righteous by works of law shall be no flesh.'
Gal 2:16 (CTOTNT) knowing that a man is not justified by works of law unless by means of a belief in Jesus Christ, even, we ourselves have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified for a belief in Christ and not for works of law; because for works of law no flesh can be justified.
Gal 2:16 (MLV) knowing that a man is not justified from the works of the law unless it is through faith in Jesus Christ, even we believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified from our faith in Christ and not from the works of the law: because from the works of the law no flesh will be justified.

This is an excerpt from the BDAG on the words translated "but, if not, and unless" highlighted in red above

β. ἐὰν μή if not, unless w. pres. subj. ἐὰν δὲ μὴ ᾖ ἀξία Mt 10:13; cp. Lk 13:3; J 3:2f, 5, 27. Mostly w. aor. subj. ἐὰν μὴ περισσεύσῃ Mt 5:20; 6:15; 12:29; 18:3; 21:21; Mk 3:27; 4:22 (s. KBeyer, Semitische Syntax im NT, ’62, 131); J 4:48; 6:44; 7:51; Ro 10:15; 1 Cor 9:16; 14:6; unless, without ἐὰν μὴ αὐτὸ πίω Mt 26:42. W. fut. ἐὰν μὴ μετανοήσουσιν Rv 2:22.


And from Mickelson's enhanced Strong's

G3362 ἐάν μή ean me (e-an' mee') cond.
if not, i.e. unless.

 

[Studyman]

Most translations of this text translate the clause highlighted below with bold emphasis as shown here from the KJV.

Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

That is incorrect. It should be as these translations are. Do you see and understand the difference.

Gal 2:16 (YLT) having known also that a man is not declared righteous by works of law, if not through the faith of Jesus Christ, also we in Christ Jesus did believe, that we might be declared righteous by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law, wherefore declared righteous by works of law shall be no flesh.'
Gal 2:16 (CTOTNT) knowing that a man is not justified by works of law unless by means of a belief in Jesus Christ, even, we ourselves have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified for a belief in Christ and not for works of law; because for works of law no flesh can be justified.
Gal 2:16 (MLV) knowing that a man is not justified from the works of the law unless it is through faith in Jesus Christ, even we believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified from our faith in Christ and not from the works of the law: because from the works of the law no flesh will be justified.

This is an excerpt from the BDAG on the words translated "but, if not, and unless" highlighted in red above

β. ἐὰν μή if not, unless w. pres. subj. ἐὰν δὲ μὴ ᾖ ἀξία Mt 10:13; cp. Lk 13:3; J 3:2f, 5, 27. Mostly w. aor. subj. ἐὰν μὴ περισσεύσῃ Mt 5:20; 6:15; 12:29; 18:3; 21:21; Mk 3:27; 4:22 (s. KBeyer, Semitische Syntax im NT, ’62, 131); J 4:48; 6:44; 7:51; Ro 10:15; 1 Cor 9:16; 14:6; unless, without ἐὰν μὴ αὐτὸ πίω Mt 26:42. W. fut. ἐὰν μὴ μετανοήσουσιν Rv 2:22.


And from Mickelson's enhanced Strong's

G3362 ἐάν μή ean me (e-an' mee') cond.
if not, i.e. unless.

Interesting conclusion. I love how you seem to seek truth, and not simply justification.

"But" (lol) I would ask a question for your consideration, if you would engage with me for a minute.

According to Moses, it was necessary for men who sinned to, (and I use the following as symbolic of the Sacrifices of the Old Priesthood Law "for GDL's sake"), "kill a goat" before the Levite Priest, in order for the forgiveness of sins to be provided for.

We know that the Pharisees were still promoting these "works of the Law" for the remission of sins. It was part of their religious business Jesus rebuked them for.

It is an interesting question you bring to light here. Would it then be considered Righteous for the Jews to sacrifice Animals to God for their sins, as long as they believed Jesus was God's Son?

And yet, the Faithful in the Law and Prophets, who believed Moses, like Jeremiah, Isaiah, David, Solomon for a time, Zacharias, Simeon, Anna, the Wise Men etc. All these men understood the Priesthood sacrifices foreshadowed the "works" of the Messiah.

So then, Zacharias, as an example, was "not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ,".

Luke 1: 67 And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying, 68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people, 69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David; 70 As he spake by the mouth of his holy prophets, which have been since the world began:

So surely Zacharias partook of the "Works of the Law" Moses required for the remission of Sins.

"BUT" was he justified by these "works of the Law"? Or his obvious Faith in the Christ, the Rock of Israel who he believed would come to earth and redeem His people?

It seems like Paul was saying

Knowing that Zacharias was not "justified" (Sins forgiven) by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

But then again, before the Christ came, it was required by LAW to kill a goat before a Levite Priest, before sins are forgiven.

So I can see how your study would also play into this.

"Knowing that Zacharias was not justified by the works of the law, unless through the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."

It seems Isaiah 1 brings the same perspective, in my view.

Is. 1: 2 Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth: for the LORD hath spoken, I have nourished and brought up children, and they have rebelled against me. 3 The ox knoweth his owner, and the ass his master's crib: but Israel doth not know, my people doth not consider. 4 Ah sinful nation, a people laden with iniquity, a seed of evildoers, children that are corrupters: they have forsaken the LORD, they have provoked the Holy One of Israel unto anger, they are gone away backward.

11 To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices unto me? saith the LORD: I am full of the burnt offerings of rams, and the fat of fed beasts; and I delight not in the blood of bullocks, or of lambs, or of he goats.

So I can see how your study aregees with this.

"Knowing that Israel was not justified by the works of the law, unless through the faith of the Holy One of Israel, even we have believed in HIM, that we might be justified by the faith of this Christ, the Rock of Israel who became flesh and dwelled among us, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."

Is. 48: 16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the LORD thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go.

I think that before the Rock of Israel, their Redeemer, became flesh and dwelled among them;

"Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, if not by the faith of the Christ, the Rock of Israel, even we have believed in this Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of this Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified." Certainly Isaiah and Zacharias would agree with this.

But after the SEED has Come;

Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Great topic HIM. And one worthy of discussion no doubt. I look forward to your thoughts.

 

[HIM]

But" (lol) I would ask a question for your consideration, if you would engage with me for a minute.

I have been working and check in every once in awhile. Each time I read your reply this here makes me chuckle.

 

[Studyman]

I have been working and check in every once in awhile. Each time I read your reply this here makes me chuckle.

It was meant to.

I am not arguing with you, just voicing what came to my mind from your good study.

“BUT” (lol) I’m not disagreeing with you.

 

[HIM]

Interesting conclusion. I love how you seem to seek truth, and not simply justification.

"But" (lol) I would ask a question for your consideration, if you would engage with me for a minute.

According to Moses, it was necessary for men who sinned to, (and I use the following as symbolic of the Sacrifices of the Old Priesthood Law "for GDL's sake"), "kill a goat" before the Levite Priest, in order for the forgiveness of sins to be provided for.

We know that the Pharisees were still promoting these "works of the Law" for the remission of sins. It was part of their religious business Jesus rebuked them for.

It is an interesting question you bring to light here. Would it then be considered Righteous for the Jews to sacrifice Animals to God for their sins, as long as they believed Jesus was God's Son?

And yet, the Faithful in the Law and Prophets, who believed Moses, like Jeremiah, Isaiah, David, Solomon for a time, Zacharias, Simeon, Anna, the Wise Men etc. All these men understood the Priesthood sacrifices foreshadowed the "works" of the Messiah.

So then, Zacharias, as an example, was "not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ,".

Luke 1: 67 And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost, and prophesied, saying, 68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people, 69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David; 70 As he spake by the mouth of his holy prophets, which have been since the world began:

So surely Zacharias partook of the "Works of the Law" Moses required for the remission of Sins.

"BUT" was he justified by these "works of the Law"? Or his obvious Faith in the Christ, the Rock of Israel who he believed would come to earth and redeem His people?

It seems like Paul was saying

Knowing that Zacharias was not "justified" (Sins forgiven) by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

But then again, before the Christ came, it was required by LAW to kill a goat before a Levite Priest, before sins are forgiven.

So I can see how your study would also play into this.

"Knowing that Zacharias was not justified by the works of the law, unless through the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."

It seems Isaiah 1 brings the same perspective, in my view.

Is. 1: 2 Hear, O heavens, and give ear, O earth: for the LORD hath spoken, I have nourished and brought up children, and they have rebelled against me. 3 The ox knoweth his owner, and the ass his master's crib: but Israel doth not know, my people doth not consider. 4 Ah sinful nation, a people laden with iniquity, a seed of evildoers, children that are corrupters: they have forsaken the LORD, they have provoked the Holy One of Israel unto anger, they are gone away backward.

11 To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices unto me? saith the LORD: I am full of the burnt offerings of rams, and the fat of fed beasts; and I delight not in the blood of bullocks, or of lambs, or of he goats.

So I can see how your study aregees with this.

"Knowing that Israel was not justified by the works of the law, unless through the faith of the Holy One of Israel, even we have believed in HIM, that we might be justified by the faith of this Christ, the Rock of Israel who became flesh and dwelled among us, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."

Is. 48: 16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the LORD thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go.

I think that before the Rock of Israel, their Redeemer, became flesh and dwelled among them;

"Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, if not by the faith of the Christ, the Rock of Israel, even we have believed in this Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of this Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified." Certainly Isaiah and Zacharias would agree with this.

But after the SEED has Come;

Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Great topic HIM. And one worthy of discussion no doubt. I look forward to your thoughts.

Amen and Thanks for the post Studyman.

Justified is made, deemed. or being righteous. And As you are probably aware of Faith is a noun, a state of being.
Jesus was the Word manifested in the flesh. He is the author and finisher of THE Faith. The just shall live by the Faith And this Faith establishes the Law. So with that being said, when we ask you this question please do not think we are Saying the law is done away with as a whole.

In respect to being justified in Gal. 2:16 you have limited it to being so through sacrificial system of the Law correct? Yet in chapter 3 in respect to the Law, the Book of the Law is mentioned and the opening context in chapter 2 is circumcision.

And what does Galatians say in respect to the faith that we live by?

 

[daq]

The just shall live by the Faith And this Faith establishes the Law.

And what does Galatians say in respect to the faith that we live by?

That is a quote from a specific passage in the LXX, (Habbakuk 2:4).

Habbakuk 2:1-4 LXX-Septuagint
1 I will stand upon my watch, and mount upon the rock, and watch to see what he will say by me, and what I shall answer when I am reproved.
2 And the LORD answered me and said, Write the vision, and that plainly on a tablet, that he that reads it may run.
3 For the vision is yet for a time, and it shall shoot forth at the end, and not in vain: though he should tarry, wait for him; for he will surely come, and will not tarry.
4 If he should draw back, my soul has no pleasure in him: but the just shall live by [my] faith.

The Apostolic teaching concerning this vision is as follows:

Hebrews 10:35-39 KJV
35 Cast not away therefore your confidence, which hath great recompence of reward.
36 For ye have need of patience, that, after ye have done the will of God, ye might receive the promise.
37 For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry. [Hab 2:3]
38 Now the just shall live by faith: but if any man draw back, my soul shall have no pleasure in him. [Hab 2:4]
39 But we are not of them who draw back unto perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul.

There is therefore, according to the Apostolic teaching, a certain particular time when true faith and true belief has come, and this is apparently, unfortunately, not what is taught in mainstream Christianity anymore. It is a time of testing and trial, the time of which Paul speaks in Galatians 4:1-2, the time appointed of the Father when a babe or child becomes a tried, true, and tested son. And until that appointed time, (a day which no man knows), babes and children in "the milk of the Word" are under the schoolmaster, (Torah), tutors, (Prophets), and governors, (Writings).

This is the only proper way to understand what Paul says in Galatians 3, for it is the same passage, and what is in view when Paul says what he does in Gal 4:1-2, (essentially Gal 4:1-2 is a concluding statement based on what has already been said in the previous chapter). When therefore Paul uses such phrases as "but before faith came", (Gal 3:23a), and "but faith having come", (Gal 3:25a), this vision of Hab 2:1-4 and the teaching concerning what it means in Hebrews 10:35-39 is precisely what Paul is speaking about.

This was no different with the ancients, just as it was with Abraham, whose initial belief was accounted to him as righteousness, but his faith was not tested and proven until many years later when he was tested in Genesis 22, and this is precisely what Yakob teaches in his epistle in the following passage.

James 2:21-23 KJV
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? [Gen 22]
22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: [Gen 15:6] and he was called the Friend of God.

What this means, "and the scripture was fulfilled", is that Abraham's initial belief, although it was accounted to him as righteousness, still needed to be put to the test, and thus, the statement in Gen 15:6 was not entirely fulfilled until Abraham was tested, which is what is meant in Gen 22:1-2, (not tempted but tested).

 

[Studyman]

Amen and Thanks for the post Studyman.

Justified is made, deemed. or being righteous.

Yes, which is very important given all men are guilty of rejecting, ignoring and Transgressing God's Commandments, in many cases by "Religious Tradition", which makes those who partake in this practice, "unrighteous". So repentance MUST be the first step, right? If my tradition causes me to engage in fornication, am I not instructed to "Abstain" from such a behavior defined by God as "SIN"? As it is written, "Let him that stole, steal no more".

According to the Christ of the Bible, can I be justified or "made righteous" without repentance?

And As you are probably aware of Faith is a noun, a state of being.

It would certainly be important to know what "Faith" is, according to Scripture.

Strongs for Faith;

pisteuó: to believe, entrust
Original Word: πιστεύω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: pisteuó
Phonetic Spelling: (pist-yoo'-o)
Definition: to believe, entrust

"Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen.

So Faith is, in part, "Evidence" of what men believes and trusts, Yes?

To "Live by" Faith, would be to live by belief or trust in something. Our "works" would be the "Evidence" of what we believe, just as Abraham's "works" were evidence of his Faith.

For example, if I had a Statue of Buddha in my home, and practiced the religious traditions of Buddhism, this would be the "Evidence" of what I believe and who I trust, or by definition, "Faith".

Jesus Lived by "FAITH", not in Buddha, the evidence of His Belief shows who HE believed in. John 10: 37 If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. 38 But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him.

He was rewarded greatly for His Faith. Paul teaches that I can be forgiven my trespasses, or "justified" if I have this same Faith.

I believe him.

Jesus was the Word manifested in the flesh. He is the author and finisher of THE Faith. The just shall live by the Faith And this Faith establishes the Law.

Yes, His obedience to God on earth, was the "evidence" of His Faith, just as it was for those who had His Spirit in the Law and Prophets, like Abraham and Caleb and Rehab and Zacharias and Simeon and all the examples of "Faith" given for our examples. He is the Author of Living Faith.

So with that being said, when we ask you this question please do not think we are Saying the law is done away with as a whole.

I would hope not, as the Jesus of the Bible Himself said "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil."

Those who have the Faith of this Jesus wouldn't even "Think" such a thing.

In respect to being justified in Gal. 2:16 you have limited it to being so through sacrificial system of the Law correct?

Well Paul was arguing with a particular religious sect, the Pharisees I believe. According to the Jesus of the Bible who I believe and trust, this religion by their very tradition, transgressed God's Commandments. They "Omitted" much of the most important aspects of God's Laws, but they still sold animals for forgiveness in their temple, and were big on other priesthood works like tithing, washing cups, etc.

Jesus said of this religious sect, which transgressed God's commandments by their own religious traditions; "Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye compass sea and land to make one proselyte, and when he is made, ye make him twofold more the child of hell than yourselves."

So they were promoting a religion that they "SAID" promoted God's Laws. But even a little bit of study shows that they were not trying to get anyone, including the Galatians, to "Yield themselves" servants to obey God, and become "Servants to God's Righteousness", as Paul and the Body of Christ was instructed to "do". Which was the same Faith of Jesus, as it is written: "And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross."

Yet in chapter 3 in respect to the Law, the Book of the Law is mentioned and the opening context in chapter 2 is circumcision.

Paul called the religious sect of the Pharisees, "The Circumcision". And he called the Gentiles, "The uncircumcision". To be "Circumcised" in the context that Paul used many times, meant to be converted to the Sect of the Pharisees religion. He is hard to understand sometimes, as it is written.

Gal. 2: 12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision.

And what does Galatians say in respect to the faith that we live by?

Paul exposes the religious sect that was trying to Convert the Galatians to their religious traditions and philosophies.

Gal. 1:13 For ye have heard of my conversation in time past in the Jews' religion, how that beyond measure I persecuted the church of God, and wasted it: 14 And profited in the Jews' religion above many my equals in mine own nation, being more exceedingly zealous of the traditions of my fathers.

So it is clear why Paul warned the Galatians to stay away from the "Circumcision", who "profess that they know God; but in works they deny him, being abominable, and disobedient, and unto every good work reprobate."

And the Jesus of the Bible told me to be perfect, even as His father in heaven is perfect. And this same Christ told me, "if you want to enter Life, keep God's Commandments".

And Paul had already established the Christ's Words and taught the same. "(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.

What Law then, did the Pharisees promote? Love God and Love your neighbor? And if they did, would God not accept them into HIS church as HE did others who repented and turned to Him, and brought works worthy of repentance, as Paul also teaches?? Or did they promote that men should come to their religion, their priests for the remission of Sins, as per their version of the Levitical Priesthood, and not the Christ, for justification?

16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

What was the "Faith of the Jesus of the Bible" that I am to adopt for Justification?

 

[HIM]

Yes, which is very important given all men are guilty of rejecting, ignoring and Transgressing God's Commandments, in many cases by "Religious Tradition", which makes those who partake in this practice, "unrighteous". So repentance MUST be the first step, right? If my tradition causes me to engage in fornication, am I not instructed to "Abstain" from such a behavior defined by God as "SIN"? As it is written, "Let him that stole, steal no more".

According to the Christ of the Bible, can I be justified or "made righteous" without repentance?

Absolutely not. For the sake of the OP I would like to confine our remarks to Galatians please. So our responses will "mainly" come from said Book in order to stay centered. With that being stated how does Galatians answer your pertinent inquiry?

The first occurrence of Justified which is verb, an action; is in the present tense in 2:16 not a noun a state of being. Which means that it is on going not a done deal. The fact the second occurrence is in the subjunctive mood, the mood of possibility furthers this fact. Hence why most translation state it, "might be justified".


Gal 2:16 having known also that a man is not justified by works of law, if not through the faith of Jesus Christ, also we in Christ Jesus did believe, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law, wherefore declared righteous by works of law shall be no flesh.'

The unrepentant will not inherit the Kingdom of God therefore they are not Justified, made righteous.

Gal 5:21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.

Paul called the religious sect of the Pharisees, "The Circumcision". And he called the Gentiles, "The uncircumcision". To be "Circumcised" in the context that Paul used many times, meant to be converted to the Sect of the Pharisees religion. He is hard to understand sometimes, as it is written.

Gal. 2: 12 For before that certain came from James, he did eat with the Gentiles: but when they were come, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing them which were of the circumcision.

This is where we differ. The context of the Law here in Galatians is circumcision not the circumcision. And also fellowshipping with the uncircumcised, the Gentile sinners. And assimilating their customs disregarding the Jews founded in the Book of the Law.

Gal 2:3 But neither Titus, who was with me, being a Greek, was compelled to be circumcised:
Gal 2:14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?
Gal 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.

Thanks for the reply. We will look at the rest of what you shared as time sees fit. Happy Sabbath.

 

[Studyman]

Absolutely not. For the sake of the OP I would like to confine our remarks to Galatians please. So our responses will "mainly" come from said Book in order to stay centered. With that being stated how does Galatians answer your pertinent inquiry?

It is a mistake, in my view, to separate one chapter or verse in the Bible, from the rest of the Bible.

Who were the Pharisees, according to the Jesus of the bible? What was the "Jews Religion", according to the Jesus of the Bible? How can I understand Paul in Galatians, if I don't consider his teaching in Acts or Romans?

I will try to confine the discussion to one book, but if Galatians was the only book of the Bible that I possessed, I would know nothing about God, or His Son.

The first occurrence of Justified which is verb, an action; is in the present tense in 2:16 not a noun a state of being. Which means that it is on going not a done deal. The fact the second occurrence is in the subjunctive mood, the mood of possibility furthers this fact. Hence why most translation state it, "might be justified".

Gal 2:16 having known also that a man is not justified by works of law, if not through the faith of Jesus Christ, also we in Christ Jesus did believe, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law, wherefore declared righteous by works of law shall be no flesh.'

But Paul said in another place "(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified."

The Jesus of the Bible said "but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments."

And the God of the Law and Prophets, the Holy One of Israel, the Rock of my Salvation, said;

EZ. 18: 21 But if the wicked will turn from all his sins that he hath committed, and keep all my statutes, and do that which is lawful and right, he shall surely live, he shall not die. 22 All his transgressions that he hath committed, they shall not be mentioned unto him: in his righteousness that he hath done he shall live. 23 Have I any pleasure at all that the wicked should die? saith the Lord GOD: and not that he should return from his ways, and live?

And Paul teaches the Galatians : "that they should repent and turn to God, and do works meet for repentance."

So what "works of the Law" were the Pharisees promoting, for the remission of sins?

The unrepentant will not inherit the Kingdom of God therefore they are not Justified, made righteous.

Gal 5:21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.

Is this not because they didn't "turn from their transgressions" and put on the "New Man" which after God is created in righteousness and true holiness.

Again, then what "works of the Law" were the Pharisees promoting, for Justification?

When a man sinned, what did the Pharisees require this man to "DO"?

And what did Jesus require this man to "DO"?

Surely I must also consider these Words in my study of Galatians, Yes?

This is where we differ. The context of the Law here in Galatians is circumcision not the circumcision. And also fellowshipping with the uncircumcised, the Gentile sinners. And assimilating their customs disregarding the Jews founded in the Book of the Law.

But my friend, "EVERY WORD" Jesus and His Father through the Prophets, told us about the Jews religion, Their customs were not founded in the Book of the Law. Now if I only had Galatians, and not any of the Words of the Christ of the Bible, or the Prophets, I might be convinced that the Jews were promoting LAW founded on the Book of the Law.

But because I already know who the Jews were, and whose Commandments they taught for doctrines, I understand what the "works of the Law" they were promoting to the Gentile Converts in Acts, and the Galatians, and the Ephesians, and in Jerusalem, "for forgiveness" was. They had a good business going, selling goats and turtle doves, and all their power, fame and wealth came from their version of the Levitical Priesthood.

So yes, we differ on this point.

"But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;"

Jews and Gentiles.

Circumcision (Jew) is nothing, and uncircumcision (Gentile) is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God.

It is fascinating though, depending on how we see the Pharisees religion, as either founded by God's Law, or a religion who rejects God's Law by their own traditions, influences how we understand Paul in Galatians.

Gal 2:3 But neither Titus, who was with me, being a Greek, was compelled to be circumcised:
Gal 2:14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?
Gal 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them.

Thanks for the reply. We will look at the rest of what you shared as time sees fit. Happy Sabbath.

If I am a Pharisee relying on an obsolete Priesthood, with obsolete sacrificial "works of the Law" to remove my unrighteousness, then I am most cursed. Because the blood of animals does not remove sin, therefore, I am bound to never sin. But I have already sinned, therefore, I am most cursed.

Gal. 5: 1 Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.

What is the Yoke of Bondage? Was it not the "Jews religion"?

"But woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye shut up the kingdom of heaven against men: for ye neither go in yourselves, neither suffer ye them that are entering to go in."

Mark 7: 9 And he said unto them, Full well ye reject the commandment of God, that ye may keep your own tradition.

Matt. 23: For they (NOT God, and "many" teach) bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them on men's shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their fingers.

The Apostles understood this more than most. Acts 15: 10 Now therefore why tempt ye God, to put a yoke upon the neck of the disciples, which neither our fathers "nor we" were able to bear?


2 Behold, I Paul say unto you, that if ye be circumcised, (Converted to the Jews Religion) Christ shall profit you nothing.

Do you believe all who are physically circumcised are without Christ? Of course, you don't. Is it not then the religion, that Paul called the "Circumcision" which promotes the works of an obsolete Priesthood, for the remission of sins?

3 For I testify again to every man that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law. Why? If this is talking about physical Circumcision, and not the religion of the Jews, then why does Paul say "In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

There is a "Circumcision required", Moses spoke of it. Duet. 10: 16 Circumcise therefore the foreskin of your heart, and be no more stiffnecked. Is this not "Circumcision" after the manner of Moses, that Paul adopted?

Phil. 3: 3 For we are the circumcision, which worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh.

4 Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace.

5 For we through the Spirit wait for the hope of righteousness by faith.

6 For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision (Jew) availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision (Gentile); but faith which worketh by love.

A great topic of discussion. Thanks for posting, and allowing me to share my understanding.

 

[HIM]

It is a mistake, in my view, to separate one chapter or verse in the Bible, from the rest of the Bible.

We are not separating. If we can't prove something is being said in a given book within the book that is an issue also. And that is where we are coming from. Granted nothing contradicts and if we think it does we need to work that out within the whole. Keep in mind Galatians is probably the only letter the recipients had in respect to what we call the NT in the time they received it. Though they had access to the Pentateuch also.

I will try to confine the discussion to one book, but if Galatians was the only book of the Bible that I possessed, I would know nothing about God, or His Son.

It was never to be about or through the Book, but I understand where you are coming from.

But Paul said in another place "(For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified."

The Jesus of the Bible said "but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments."

Amen!

And the God of the Law and Prophets, the Holy One of Israel, the Rock of my Salvation, said;

EZ. 18: 21 But if the wicked will turn from all his sins that he hath committed, and keep all my statutes, and do that which is lawful and right, he shall surely live, he shall not die. 22 All his transgressions that he hath committed, they shall not be mentioned unto him: in his righteousness that he hath done he shall live. 23 Have I any pleasure at all that the wicked should die? saith the Lord GOD: and not that he should return from his ways, and live?

And Paul teaches the Galatians : "that they should repent and turn to God, and do works meet for repentance."

So what "works of the Law" were the Pharisees promoting, for the remission of sins?

Remission is not about just forgiveness it is more about cessation.
The Greek word translated forgiveness simply means "take away" as you probably are aware of.

But my friend, "EVERY WORD" Jesus and His Father through the Prophets, told us about the Jews religion, Their customs were not founded in the Book of the Law. Now if I only had Galatians, and not any of the Words of the Christ of the Bible, or the Prophets, I might be convinced that the Jews were promoting LAW founded on the Book of the Law.

But because I already know who the Jews were, and whose Commandments they taught for doctrines, I understand what the "works of the Law" they were promoting to the Gentile Converts in Acts, and the Galatians, and the Ephesians, and in Jerusalem, "for forgiveness" was. They had a good business going, selling goats and turtle doves, and all their power, fame and wealth came from their version of the Levitical Priesthood.

So yes, we differ on this point.

"But contrariwise, when they saw that the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was unto Peter;"

Jews and Gentiles.

Circumcision (Jew) is nothing, and uncircumcision (Gentile) is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God.

It is fascinating though, depending on how we see the Pharisees religion, as either founded by God's Law, or a religion who rejects God's Law by their own traditions, influences how we understand Paul in Galatians.


If I am a Pharisee relying on an obsolete Priesthood, with obsolete sacrificial "works of the Law" to remove my unrighteousness, then I am most cursed. Because the blood of animals does not remove sin, therefore, I am bound to never sin. But I have already sinned, therefore, I am most cursed.

Gal. 5: 1 Stand fast therefore in the liberty wherewith Christ hath made us free, and be not entangled again with the yoke of bondage.

What is the Yoke of Bondage? Was it not the "Jews religion"?

No and yes. It is trying to obey the Law from the letter, the Book and not from the faith we can have in and through Christ. The Faith that establishes the Law, the Word, the Book, the Bible.
We were asked what is the Faith that Galatians speaks of. This is a pertinent question in respect to us understanding what it is Galatians shares. To me it is all that matters.

What does Galatians 2:20 say about the faith? All else slightly before and thereafter needs to be understood in this context. For it is the religion of Christ.

Again, then what "works of the Law" were the Pharisees promoting, for Justification?

When a man sinned, what did the Pharisees require this man to "DO"?

And what did Jesus require this man to "DO"?

Surely I must also consider these Words in my study of Galatians, Yes?

Here are the text that I am aware of that use the clause ἔργων νόμου "works of Law". If you know of any others please share.

We probably should discuss them. So as to be clear and not waste any time you believe that each of these occurrences Paul through the Spirit is sharing the works of the Law, that He speaks of the laws that pertained to the atonement for sin? And or the laws the pharisees made up?

Rom 3:20 Therefore by the works of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
Rom 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the works of the law.

Rom 9:32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;

Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Gal 3:2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? KJV
Gal 3:5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? KJV
Gal 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. KJV

A great topic of discussion. Thanks for posting, and allowing me to share my understanding.

Praise God and let it be His understanding not ours.

 

[HIM]

That is a quote from a specific passage in the LXX, (Habbakuk 2:4).

Habbakuk 2:1-4 LXX-Septuagint
1 I will stand upon my watch, and mount upon the rock, and watch to see what he will say by me, and what I shall answer when I am reproved.
2 And the LORD answered me and said, Write the vision, and that plainly on a tablet, that he that reads it may run.
3 For the vision is yet for a time, and it shall shoot forth at the end, and not in vain: though he should tarry, wait for him; for he will surely come, and will not tarry.
4 If he should draw back, my soul has no pleasure in him: but the just shall live by [my] faith.

The Apostolic teaching concerning this vision is as follows:

Hebrews 10:35-39 KJV
35 Cast not away therefore your confidence, which hath great recompence of reward.
36 For ye have need of patience, that, after ye have done the will of God, ye might receive the promise.
37 For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry. [Hab 2:3]
38 Now the just shall live by faith: but if any man draw back, my soul shall have no pleasure in him. [Hab 2:4]
39 But we are not of them who draw back unto perdition; but of them that believe to the saving of the soul.

There is therefore, according to the Apostolic teaching, a certain particular time when true faith and true belief has come, and this is apparently, unfortunately, not what is taught in mainstream Christianity anymore. It is a time of testing and trial, the time of which Paul speaks in Galatians 4:1-2, the time appointed of the Father when a babe or child becomes a tried, true, and tested son. And until that appointed time, (a day which no man knows), babes and children in "the milk of the Word" are under the schoolmaster, (Torah), tutors, (Prophets), and governors, (Writings).

This is the only proper way to understand what Paul says in Galatians 3, for it is the same passage, and what is in view when Paul says what he does in Gal 4:1-2, (essentially Gal 4:1-2 is a concluding statement based on what has already been said in the previous chapter). When therefore Paul uses such phrases as "but before faith came", (Gal 3:23a), and "but faith having come", (Gal 3:25a), this vision of Hab 2:1-4 and the teaching concerning what it means in Hebrews 10:35-39 is precisely what Paul is speaking about.

This was no different with the ancients, just as it was with Abraham, whose initial belief was accounted to him as righteousness, but his faith was not tested and proven until many years later when he was tested in Genesis 22, and this is precisely what Yakob teaches in his epistle in the following passage.

James 2:21-23 KJV
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? [Gen 22]
22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect?
23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: [Gen 15:6] and he was called the Friend of God.

What this means, "and the scripture was fulfilled", is that Abraham's initial belief, although it was accounted to him as righteousness, still needed to be put to the test, and thus, the statement in Gen 15:6 was not entirely fulfilled until Abraham was tested, which is what is meant in Gen 22:1-2, (not tempted but tested).

Amen but what does Galatians say of the faith that we are to live through?

And if I may in respect to the Dative Case is it that Abraham believed God, in God or to God that it was accounted to Him for righteousness?

 

[daq]

Amen but what does Galatians say of the faith that we are to live through?

And if I may in respect to the Dative Case is it that Abraham believed God, in God or to God that it was accounted to Him for righteousness?

To believe is a verb. Abraham believed to/toward/into because he believed the Word of the Father which appeared to him in the vision and believed what was spoken to him. There is a change in position in this: by his action, (believing what was spoken to him, which is a work, a good work, (internal)), Abraham changes from a position of unknowing something to a position of having heard the Word of the Father and having believed what he heard which was spoken to him. It is not that Abraham suddenly "believed in God", no, for as Yakob says, the demons also believe, and tremble, (James 2:19, from the same passage previously quoted), thus it is rather that Abraham believed into the Word of the Father who had appeared to him in the vision by way of his believing what was spoken to him by/through the Word. A simple belief in God does not bring about the change in status portrayed in the Genesis passage.

If therefore we believe that Meshiah is the Word, then Abraham, by way of believing the Word, becomes "in Meshiah" (or "in Christ"), and this is the change in his position of status. However, as the epistle of Yakob points out, this belief was not entirely fulfilled until many years later when Abraham's faithfulness/belief was put to the test in Genesis 22.

 

[Studyman]

We are not separating. If we can't prove something is being said in a given book within the book that is an issue also. And that is where we are coming from. Granted nothing contradicts and if we think it does we need to work that out within the whole. Keep in mind Galatians is probably the only letter the recipients had in respect to what we call the NT in the time they received it. Though they had access to the Pentateuch also.

The Galatians Paul addressed, were part of the Church of God, the Body of Christ. We know Paul taught them, as he did others, to "Repent, Turn to God, Do Works worthy of repentance" (Acts 26) They were surrounded by a religious business, that sold animals for sacrifice, who professed to know God, but as shown by their works, they denied Him and were disobedient. The Prophets foretold of this, and the NT confirms that "As their fathers did, so do they".

Is. 1: 4 Ah sinful nation, a people laden with iniquity, a seed of evildoers, children that are corrupters: they have forsaken the LORD, they have provoked the Holy One of Israel unto anger, they are gone away backward. 5 Why should ye be stricken any more? ye will revolt more and more: the whole head is sick, and the whole heart faint.

10 Hear the word of the LORD, ye rulers of Sodom; give ear unto the law of our God, ye people of Gomorrah. 11 To what purpose is the multitude of your sacrifices unto me? saith the LORD: I am full of the burnt offerings of rams, and the fat of fed beasts; and I delight not in the blood of bullocks, or of lambs, or of he goats.

So even in Isaiah's time, they despised God's Judgments and full well rejected God's commandments, but still partook of the Priesthood "works of the law" to Justify themselves.

We know they taught for doctrines the Commandments of men, not God, and we know they Transgressed God's commandments by their own religious traditions, because the Jesus "of the Bible" told us as much. They were doing to the Galatians what they did to the Gentile converts in acts 15, which is what all of this world's religions do, seeking to convert contributing members to their religion, without which their power, wealth and religious business could not survive.

These things are undeniably true, at least according to the Holy Scriptures Timothy Grew up with. Which Paul said was able to make him wise unto Salvation, through the Faith/belief that was in Christ Jesus.

It was never to be about or through the Book, but I understand where you are coming from.

1 Tim. 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: 17 That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.

The Oracles of God are pretty important, according to Paul, in my view.

Eph. 2: 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

Are these the same "Good Works" shown by inspiration of God in the Holy Scriptures that Paul instructed the Timothy, a member of the Body of Christ to "continue in"?

It's about becoming one of "them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality,", Yes?

Isn't this the high calling of God which was in Christ Jesus? Where else would a man go to "Seek the Righteousness of God" as Jesus instructed, if not the Holy Scriptures?

Remission is not about just forgiveness it is more about cessation.

Absolutely, "Now go and sin no more".

The Greek word translated forgiveness simply means "take away" as you probably are aware of.

Yes, "as far as the east is from the west".

No and yes. It is trying to obey the Law from the letter, the Book

Probably to most insidious lie and deception promoted by the religions of this world God placed both you and I in, is the teaching that the Pharisees were trying to Obey God, "by the Letter". Since we were old enough to hear sermons, we are taught that the Pharisees were trying to earn salvation by obeying God. This leaven, once firmly planted in the hearts of men, infects everything they read. Especially Galatians.

The Pharisees were not promoting God's Laws. At least this is what the Jesus of the Bible teaches in "EVERY WORD" He used to describe them.

Had they believed Moses, they would not have been ignorant of God's Righteousness, and would have known the Christ when HE came, like Zacharias, Simeon, Anna and the wise men, who did "DO" as the Law and Prophets teach Ez. 18: 31 Cast away from you all your transgressions, whereby ye have transgressed; and make you a new heart and a new spirit: for why will ye die, O house of Israel?

and not from the faith we can have in and through Christ.

Faith, according to Scriptures, means "Belief". Jesus Himself said, "And he said unto him, If they hear not Moses and the prophets, neither will they be persuaded, though one rose from the dead."

And again;

John 5: 46 For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me. 47 But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?

This would explain why HE wanted the multitude and His Disciples to "hear Moses" from those who read him every Sabbath, but NOT to follow their religious doctrines and Philosophies, because they "SAY" but do not.

So if the Christ of the Bible says to hear and believe Moses, and I have Faith in this Christ, shall I not listen to and believe Moses?

The Faith that establishes the Law, the Word, the Book, the Bible.

Absolutely, God's Instruction in Righteousness is revealed to us in the Holy scriptures. Belief in this God and His Righteousness, even at the peril of our own lives, is called "Faith" in the Holy Scriptures.

We were asked what is the Faith that Galatians speaks of. This is a pertinent question in respect to us understanding what it is Galatians shares. To me it is all that matters.

There is only ONE Faith.

Eph. 4: 4 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.

This is why I think it's a mistake to single out Galatians, remove it from what we have already been taught, and build doctrines around it,

"Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

Had the Galatians adopted a tradition of eating animals that were strangled, and not bled out according to God's Law, would Paul not have told the Galatians to "Abstain" from such a behavior, just as they instructed the Gentile Converts?

So then the "Faith/belief" of Jesus, or the Faith/belief that was in Jesus, believed in the God who sent Him, "Yes?.

So then therefore, did Zacharias in Luke 1, and Simeon in Luke 2, not have the Faith of Jesus?

What does Galatians 2:20 say about the faith? All else slightly before and thereafter needs to be understood in this context. For it is the religion of Christ.

20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.

So then Abraham had this same Spirit, and Noah, Yes? And Caleb? Remember, there is ONE Spirit, ONE Faith, and it was in the Jesus of the Bible.

Num. 14:24 But my servant Caleb, because he had another spirit with him, and hath followed me fully, him will I bring into the land whereinto he went; and his seed shall possess it.

It wasn't them, but the Spirit of Christ in them, Yes?

John 6: 63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

Who told Israel to go possess the Land? Was it not the Same Holy One of Israel who became Flesh? Calab had Faith, the religious men around him who called this same God their Lord did not. Hebrews 11 is full of these examples written for our admonition.

Here are the text that I am aware of that use the clause ἔργων νόμου "works of Law". If you know of any others please share.

We probably should discuss them. So as to be clear and not waste any time you believe that each of these occurrences Paul through the Spirit is sharing the works of the Law, that He speaks of the laws that pertained to the atonement for sin? And or the laws the pharisees made up?

First it seems prudent to point out that the Pharisees were charged with reading Moses.

So a person seeking Truth, would ask the Question, "What "works" did God instruct Moses to require for justification, or forgiveness of Sin?

Did Moses say, "When a man sins, he shall keep the 10 Commandments and his sins shall be forgiven? Did he say, "When a man's sins become known to him, he shall keep God's Sabbath Holy, and his sins shall be forgiven?

No, Moses didn't instruct a man to be justified by keeping these "works of the law", although repentance requires that we strive to keep them, Yes? Moses specifically told both you and I, what "works" God required in this Priesthood HE placed Israel under.

Now if the Pharisees believed Moses, they would have known, like Zacharias, Simeon, Anna and the Wise Men knew, that the "Prophet" Moses spoke of had come.

So just like in Isaiah 1, they rejected God's Commandments, but still promoted their version of the Priesthood "works" for justification.

The sacrifices never atoned for sin, they foreshadowed a "work" that did, a "work" known by the Faithful from the very beginning.

Gen. 22: 8 And Abraham said, My son, God will provide himself a lamb for a burnt offering: so they went both of them together.

 

[Studyman]

Rom 3:20 Therefore by the works of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
Rom 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the works of the law.

Rom 9:32 Wherefore? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumblingstone;

Absolutely. The Pharisees didn't believe those who God sent to them, including their redeemer.

Is. 48: 16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the LORD thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go. 18 O that thou hadst hearkened to my commandments! then had thy peace been as a river, and thy righteousness as the waves of the sea:

Like Moses said of them.

Duet. 32: 17 They sacrificed unto devils, not to God; to gods whom they knew not, to new gods that came newly up, whom your fathers feared not. 18 Of the Rock that begat thee thou art unmindful, and hast forgotten God that formed thee. 19 And when the LORD saw it, he abhorred them, because of the provoking of his sons, and of his daughters.

20And he said, I will hide my face from them, I will see what their end shall be: for they are a very froward generation, children in whom is no faith.


Whereas, the Gentiles sought the Kingdom of God, and HIS Righteousness, desiring that Moses be read to them be the Scribes every Sabbath Day.

And like Abraham, they believed God, and it was accounted to them as righteousness. They were justified, not be the "works" of an obsolete Priesthood the Pharisees were still promoting, but because they put off concerning the former conversation the old man, which is corrupt according to the deceitful lusts; And became renewed in the spirit of their mind; And had put on the new man, which after God is created in righteousness and true holiness. Wherefore they put away lying and spoke every man truth with his neighbour: for they are members one of another.

Because There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.

Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Gal 3:2 This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? KJV
Gal 3:5 He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? KJV
Gal 3:10 For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse: for it is written, Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them. KJV

Praise God and let it be His understanding not ours His Truth be our understanding.

To believe the popular religious philosophy of this world God placed us in, I would have to believe that the Pharisees were teaching the Galatians to "Repent, Turn to God, and do Works Worthy of Repentance". That the Pharisees were trying to bewitch the Galatians into "Yielding themselves" Servants to obey God, so as to become "Servants of God's Righteousness".

I would have to believe that the Pharisees were trying to convince the Galatians to "Go and Sin no more", and to "seek for glory and honour and immortality by patient continuance in well doing".

Although all these are clearly "works of the Law" of God. They are not the "works of the Law" the Pharisees were trying to promote for justification. At least according to the Jesus of the Bible.

 

[HIM]

20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.

So then Abraham had this same Spirit, and Noah, Yes? And Caleb? Remember, there is ONE Spirit, ONE Faith, and it was in the Jesus of the Bible.

No it IS of Christ not in, of. Judaism teaches of the Law and our own faith in it and God, That does not work. We share in God's Spirit through Christ. We live through God through Christ. It is God that works in us both to will and do His good pleasure. For we are dead but live. Yet not us, but Christ lives in us. And the life we now live in the flesh we live by the faith OF the Son of God who gave himself for us.

 

[HIM]

Absolutely. The Pharisees didn't believe those who God sent to them, including their redeemer.

Is. 48: 16 Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me. 17 Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the LORD thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go. 18 O that thou hadst hearkened to my commandments! then had thy peace been as a river, and thy righteousness as the waves of the sea:

Like Moses said of them.

Duet. 32: 17 They sacrificed unto devils, not to God; to gods whom they knew not, to new gods that came newly up, whom your fathers feared not. 18 Of the Rock that begat thee thou art unmindful, and hast forgotten God that formed thee. 19 And when the LORD saw it, he abhorred them, because of the provoking of his sons, and of his daughters.

20And he said, I will hide my face from them, I will see what their end shall be: for they are a very froward generation, children in whom is no faith.


Whereas, the Gentiles sought the Kingdom of God, and HIS Righteousness, desiring that Moses be read to them be the Scribes every Sabbath Day.

And like Abraham, they believed God, and it was accounted to them as righteousness. They were justified, not be the "works" of an obsolete Priesthood the Pharisees were still promoting,

No Abraham believed to the God or rather by the God.

To believe is a verb. Abraham believed to/toward/into because he believed the Word of the Father which appeared to him in the vision and believed what was spoken to him. There is a change in position in this: by his action, (believing what was spoken to him, which is a work, a good work, (internal)), Abraham changes from a position of unknowing something to a position of having heard the Word of the Father and having believed what he heard which was spoken to him. It is not that Abraham suddenly "believed in God", no, for as Yakob says, the demons also believe, and tremble, (James 2:19, from the same passage previously quoted), thus it is rather that Abraham believed into the Word of the Father who had appeared to him in the vision by way of his believing what was spoken to him by/through the Word. A simple belief in God does not bring about the change in status portrayed in the Genesis passage.

If therefore we believe that Meshiah is the Word, then Abraham, by way of believing the Word, becomes "in Meshiah" (or "in Christ"), and this is the change in his position of status. However, as the epistle of Yakob points out, this belief was not entirely fulfilled until many years later when Abraham's faithfulness/belief was put to the test in Genesis 22.

Amen! The Faith that is in and of Christ. That is the Faith that Abraham had, For He was dead but lived. Yet not Him but Christ lived in him, and the life Abraham lived he lived by the Faith of Son of God who gave Himself for us. For he had put on Christ and listen, attentively hearkened unto the faith that was then part of Him and lived in the Spirit and power of God. And this faith of Christ establishes the Law, the life we have and is only through God. For it is certain that in Him we live, move and have our being.

 

[Studyman]

No it IS of Christ not in, of. Judaism teaches of the Law and our own faith in it and God, That does not work. We share in God's Spirit through Christ. We live through God through Christ. It is God that works in us both to will and do His good pleasure. For we are dead but live. Yet not us, but Christ lives in us. And the life we now live in the flesh we live by the faith OF the Son of God who gave himself for us.

I have seen these long, drawn-out arguments over the difference between "in" and "of" before. All I know is that HE is the Author of my Faith. Therefore, as it is written "He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked."

What is "Judaism"? No one can answer. Was Jesus a Judaizer because HE taught "Salvation is of the Jews", and walked in God's Commandments?? Or were the Pharisees Judaizers because they Transgressed God's commandments by their own religious traditions??

What Law did the Jews have "Faith in", according to Jesus? Was it the same LAW the Faith "OF" Jesus caused HIM to walk in?

I believe Jesus had Faith. So whether it is the Faith "in" Him, or the Faith "of" Him, His Faith is the Faith Abraham had, and Caleb, and Zacharias, etc.

Am I not also to Strive for this Faith? And according to the Jesus of the Bible, what is "Spirit" and "Life"? Didn't THIS Jesus say His WORDS are Spirit and Life?

John 6: 61 When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you? 62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.

Therefore, if I have HIS Word's in my mind, "And I teach them diligently unto my children, and talk of them when I sit in my house, and when I walk by the way, and when I lay down, and when I risest up", is this not Christ's Life and HIS Spirit in me, as it was for Caleb?

Num. 14: 24 But my servant Caleb, because he had another spirit with him, and hath followed me fully, him will I bring into the land whereinto he went; and his seed shall possess it.


Isn't it God's good pleasure that I not die?

Ez. 18: 31 Cast away from you all your transgressions, whereby ye have transgressed; and make you a new heart and a new spirit: for why will ye die, O house of Israel? 32 For I have no pleasure in the death of him that dieth, saith the Lord GOD: wherefore turn yourselves, and live ye.

 

[DamianWarS]

Most translations of this text translate the clause highlighted below with bold emphasis as shown here from the KJV.

Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

That is incorrect. It should be as these translations are. Do you see and understand the difference.

Gal 2:16 (YLT) having known also that a man is not declared righteous by works of law, if not through the faith of Jesus Christ, also we in Christ Jesus did believe, that we might be declared righteous by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law, wherefore declared righteous by works of law shall be no flesh.'
Gal 2:16 (CTOTNT) knowing that a man is not justified by works of law unless by means of a belief in Jesus Christ, even, we ourselves have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified for a belief in Christ and not for works of law; because for works of law no flesh can be justified.
Gal 2:16 (MLV) knowing that a man is not justified from the works of the law unless it is through faith in Jesus Christ, even we believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified from our faith in Christ and not from the works of the law: because from the works of the law no flesh will be justified.

This is an excerpt from the BDAG on the words translated "but, if not, and unless" highlighted in red above

β. ἐὰν μή if not, unless w. pres. subj. ἐὰν δὲ μὴ ᾖ ἀξία Mt 10:13; cp. Lk 13:3; J 3:2f, 5, 27. Mostly w. aor. subj. ἐὰν μὴ περισσεύσῃ Mt 5:20; 6:15; 12:29; 18:3; 21:21; Mk 3:27; 4:22 (s. KBeyer, Semitische Syntax im NT, ’62, 131); J 4:48; 6:44; 7:51; Ro 10:15; 1 Cor 9:16; 14:6; unless, without ἐὰν μὴ αὐτὸ πίω Mt 26:42. W. fut. ἐὰν μὴ μετανοήσουσιν Rv 2:22.


And from Mickelson's enhanced Strong's

G3362 ἐάν μή ean me (e-an' mee') cond.
if not, i.e. unless.

Rom 3:28
For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.

there is no fault in your analysis of the words, but in the end, the utility of the words used still should agree with the rest of the scripture and perhaps this is why other translations choose "but".

 

[guevaraj]

Rom 3:28 For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.

Brother, the above statement is true at the beginning of our faith, like in the special case of the thief on the cross having been credited with work completing his faith for having "believed" without the need to have lived long enough to do any additional regular works of animal sacrifices for the forgiveness of future sins at the temple.

FAITH = BELIEVED + RIGHTEOUSNESS (work or a gift when you believed, completing your faith without having done any regular work)​

This gift of initial forgiveness at the beginning of our faith is fully understood when David received this initial forgiveness for his past sin for having "believed" being credited as work in the following passage without having done the regular works of animal sacrifices at the temple for the forgiveness of his sin with Bathsheba.

When people work, their wages are not a gift, but something they have earned. But people are credited righteousness (dikaiosuné), not because of their work, but because of their belief (pistis) in God who forgives sinners. David also spoke of this when he described the happiness of those who are credited righteousness (dikaiosuné) without working for it: “Oh, what joy for those whose disobedience is forgiven, whose sins are put out of sight. Yes, what joy for those whose record the LORD has cleared of sin.” Now, is this blessing only for the Jews, or is it also for uncircumcised Gentiles? Well, we have been saying that Abraham was credited righteousness (dikaiosuné) by God because of his belief (pistis). But how did this happen? Was he credited righteousness (dikaiosuné) only after he was circumcised, or was it before he was circumcised? Clearly, God accepted Abraham before he was circumcised! (Romans 4:4-10 NLT fixed)​

In the case of David receiving this blessing again at the beginning of his new "faith", it means that all his previous acts of God's given works of "righteousness" were forgotten and David would have died for his sin had God not brought him into a new "faith" through the prophet Nathan.

“Do you think that I like to see wicked people die? says the Sovereign LORD. Of course not! I want them to turn from their wicked ways and live. However, if righteous (adjective) people turn from their righteousness (noun) and start doing sinful things and act like other sinners, should they be allowed to live? No, of course not! All their righteous acts will be forgotten, and they will die for their sins. (Ezekiel 18:23-26 NLT fixed)​

United in our hope for the soon return of Jesus, Jorge

 

[HIM]

Rom 3:28
For we maintain that a person is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.

there is no fault in your analysis of the words, but in the end, the utility of the words used still should agree with the rest of the scripture and perhaps this is why other translations choose "but".

Putting doctrine aside for a minute. The words in question mean "if not", "unless"

Here is a citation from Strong's:

G3362 ἐάν μή ean me (e-an' mee') cond.
if not, i.e. unless.
[i.e. G1437 and G3361]
KJV: X before, but, except, if, no, (if, + whosoever) not
Root(s): G3361, G1437

Here is the citation on the conditional particle ἐάν.
G1437 ἐάν ean (e-an') cond.
in case that, provided that, etc.
{Often used in connection with other particles to denote indefiniteness or uncertainty}
[from G1487 and G302, a conditional particle]
KJV: before, but, except, (and) if, (if) so, (what-, whither-)soever, though, when (-soever), whether (or), to whom, (who-)so(-ever)

And here is the citation on the negative particle μή.


G3361 μή me (mee') prt.
1. (adverb) not.
2. (also) no (nor, neither).
3. (conjunction) lest.
4. (interrogative) whether.
5. (rhetorically) “¿!” (denoting that the following question is rhetorical).
6. (example, with G3756) “¿! Did you not know that was wrong? Of, course you did.” (typically, G3361 sets off the rhetorical question while G3756 negates the verb).
7. (specially, with genitive verb) without (acting or doing).
8. (as Hebraic idiom) may it never (happen).
9. (rarely, inverted double negative, emphatic) by no means.
{as an interrogative implying a negative answer (whereas G3756 expects an affirmative one); Often used in compounds in substantially the same relations}
[a primary particle of qualified negation (whereas G3756 expresses an absolute denial)]

This is an excerpt from the BDAG on the words translated "but, if not, and unless" highlighted in red above.

β. ἐὰν μή if not, unless w. pres. subj. ἐὰν δὲ μὴ ᾖ ἀξία Mt 10:13; cp. Lk 13:3; J 3:2f, 5, 27. Mostly w. aor. subj. ἐὰν μὴ περισσεύσῃ Mt 5:20; 6:15; 12:29; 18:3; 21:21; Mk 3:27; 4:22 (s. KBeyer, Semitische Syntax im NT, ’62, 131); J 4:48; 6:44; 7:51; Ro 10:15; 1 Cor 9:16; 14:6; unless, without ἐὰν μὴ αὐτὸ πίω Mt 26:42. W. fut. ἐὰν μὴ μετανοήσουσιν Rv 2:22.

Paul used in in accordance in respect to how the words are understood together. Not that the KJV is the end all but nowhere "in his writings" is it translated in the KJV but, but in Galatians.
Because the word "but" alone ignores the negative particle μή.


Rom 10:15 And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things!

Rom 11:23 And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be graffed in: for God is able to graff them in again.
1Cor 8:8 But meat commendeth us not to God: for neither, if we eat, are we the better; neither, if we eat not, are we the worse.

1Cor 9:16 For though I preach the gospel, I have nothing to glory of: for necessity is laid upon me; yea, woe is unto me, if I preach not the gospel!
1Cor 14:6 Now, brethren, if I come unto you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you, except I shall speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine?

1Cor 14:6 Now, brethren, if I come unto you speaking with tongues, what shall I profit you, except I shall speak to you either by revelation, or by knowledge, or by prophesying, or by doctrine?
1Cor 14:9 So likewise ye, except ye utter by the tongue words easy to be understood, how shall it be known what is spoken? for ye shall speak into the air.
1Cor 14:11 Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.
1Cor 14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
1Cor 15:36 Thou fool, that which thou sowest is not quickened, except it die:
Gal 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
2Thess 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
2Tim 2:5 And if a man also strive for masteries, yet is he not crowned, except he strive lawfully.


As was shown in the OP a couple translations have it right. Here are some of them, there are probably more.


Gal 2:16 (YLT) having known also that a man is not declared righteous by works of law, if not through the faith of Jesus Christ, also we in Christ Jesus did believe, that we might be declared righteous by the faith of Christ, and not by works of law, wherefore declared righteous by works of law shall be no flesh.'

Gal 2:16 (CTOCNC) knowing that a man is not justified by works of law unless by means of a belief in Jesus Christ, even, we ourselves have believed in Christ Jesus, that we may be justified for a belief in Christ and not for works of law; because for works of law no flesh can be justified.

Gal 2:16 (MLV) knowing that a man is not justified from the works of the law unless it is through faith in Jesus Christ, even we believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified from our faith in Christ and not from the works of the law: because from the works of the law no flesh will be justified.

The Word of God needs to be as it is not as we want it according to what we think it should be according to doctrine. So if we think there is a contradiction, and we know there can't be then there is an issue in the way we are understanding the text in question. So what is it that we are misinterpreting?