Fulfilled vs. Abolished

BenAdam · Aug 5, 2009

I really don't know why you bother anymore Piney ole chap.

Black is white and law is grace it seems.

cyberlizard · Aug 5, 2009

pinetree said:
I posted sufficiant evidence.All I see is a bunch of ask of pinetree questions,as usual..but never scripture Huh?

Steve knows the obvious reason,to his semantical question.

Steve admitted the answer already..

In his post,he said they had to convert..

To what??

The Torah..that would include circumcision huh?..... Torah....and ALL the Jewish laws..Torah...to be a Jew,that is what you have to do..

Search thr Greek,it is online.

But I will save you the trouble..

Seems like we always quote the Greek,on this forum,but now it does not seem to matter..

Why do you and Steve disagree with the God,Peter,and the scholars?

Rread Acts 10 and 11..God called em clean,because they were not clean before that.(Levitically,,Torah)

And the voice spake unto him again the second time, What God hath cleansed, that call not thou common.

Common..The greek

koinoo <2840>

Definition:
1) to make common
1a) to make (Levitically) unclean, render unhallowed, defile, profane
1b) to declare or count unclean

Another verse..

Greek for unclean in that verse.Acts 10:28

akathartos 169
Definition:1) not cleansed, unclean
1a) in a ceremonial sense: that which must be abstained from
according to the levitical law
1b) in a moral sense: unclean in thought and life

Apparently the laws were not only ended with the new cov..

Then God finalizes it when the temple,the priesthood,the laws,the sacrifices were ended.

There is some history fo ya.

you are certainly misrepresenting me and the worst thing is you know you are doing it.

I have cited both greek and hebrew scriptures, greek words to buttress my case, I have appealed to both sides of the covenants which makes my case a little more balanced.

Of course akathartos can mean levitically unclean, but it does not always mean levitically unclean. Sometimes it just means 'unclean' or better yet 'common' in the sense of something pure which has been degraded but discussing the concepts of tamei and tahor is not something I can be bothered to do with you in this thread...

All the people on this forum that have PM'd me are still waiting for you to back up your argument with a single verse from the first five books of the bible and what is worse they are finding your responses quite funny, whereas I am finding them quite sad. I find an intelligent person who loves the scriptures incapable of providing a single direct quote from the five most important books of the bible (as they are the foundations on which everything else is built).

I have read Acts 10 many many times and according to my understanding of second temple period temple worship it simply does not fit your revisionistic history - sorry to say.

So I ask just one more time and then I will drop this thread....

please for my benefit and for the edification of everyone else reading this thread, please can you show your knowledge of the first five books by giving one quotation which directly indicates that Jews and gentiles are to have no dealings together.

Steve

pinetree · Aug 5, 2009

BenAdam said:
I really don't know why you bother anymore Piney ole chap.

Black is white and law is grace it seems.

I know...
Steve even said they had to convert to go into the Temple..

That means they had to become snipped,and follow all the laws,including Torah..

Acts 10 and 11 is clear to everyone,but some here I guess...

pinetree · Aug 5, 2009

cyberlizard said:
you are certainly misrepresenting me and the worst thing is you know you are doing it.

I have cited both greek and hebrew scriptures, greek words to buttress my case, I have appealed to both sides of the covenants which makes my case a little more balanced.

Of course akathartos can mean levitically unclean, but it does not always mean levitically unclean. Sometimes it just means 'unclean' or better yet 'common' in the sense of something pure which has been degraded but discussing the concepts of tamei and tahor is not something I can be bothered to do with you in this thread...

All the people on this forum that have PM'd me are still waiting for you to back up your argument with a single verse from the first five books of the bible and what is worse they are finding your responses quite funny, whereas I am finding them quite sad. I find an intelligent person who loves the scriptures incapable of providing a single direct quote from the five most important books of the bible (as they are the foundations on which everything else is built).

I have read Acts 10 many many times and according to my understanding of second temple period temple worship it simply does not fit your revisionistic history - sorry to say.

So I ask just one more time and then I will drop this thread....

please for my benefit and for the edification of everyone else reading this thread, please can you show your knowledge of the first five books by giving one quotation which directly indicates that Jews and gentiles are to have no dealings together.

Steve

It is only revisionism to a small few...

The temple is now the Chrisitian..

There are verses if you wish to see them.

God let the old one,with the laws,prieshood,sacrifices,all go tumbling down.

The old cov is gone,with all the laws .And if a temple does get built,it wont glorify God.It will be built by the same flesh that yelled out.."crucify Him"

One sacrifice was enough..read Hebrews.

pinetree · Aug 5, 2009

Here is another interesting verse.
It proves if a Gentile was brough into the temple,it was defiled under levitical law.Torah..

The Torah separates Jew from Gentile.That is why they had to be abolished.

Acts 21:28 NASB
crying out, "Men of Israel, come to our aid! This is the man who preaches to all men everywhere against our people and the Law and this place; and besides he has even brought Greeks into the temple and has defiled this holy place."

Gotta love the Greek for defiled.It was levitical,that means it was Torah..

koinoo 2840

Definition:1) to make common
1a) to make (Levitically) unclean, render unhallowed, defile, profane
1b) to declare or count unclean

SpiritPsalmist · Aug 5, 2009

YouTube - Round The Mulberry Bush

pinetree · Aug 5, 2009

SpiritPsalmist said:
YouTube - Round The Mulberry Bush

SpiritPsalmist · Aug 5, 2009

I agree that you've given lots of scripture pinetree, but none of them have anything to do with the one (just 1) that you're being asked to give from the first 5 books of the Bible that you're insisting is there, regarding the forbidding of fellowship of a Jew with a Gentile. You are avoiding it 'cause you are unable to do it. If you are able to supply us that one scripture from the 1st five books of the Bible then please whip it right out for us.

Just one.

[move]

[/move]

pinetree · Aug 5, 2009

SpiritPsalmist said:
I agree that you've given lots of scripture pinetree, but none of them have anything to do with the one (just 1) that you're being asked to give from the first 5 books of the Bible that you're insisting is there, regarding the forbidding of fellowship of a Jew with a Gentile. You are avoiding it 'cause you are unable to do it. If you are able to supply us that one scripture from the 1st five books of the Bible then please whip it right out for us.

Just one.

[move]

[/move]

Ya know sis,I am an understanding person,and I know how you feel..

Sorry,you are a good person,but it would help of you could finally post some scripture.

I posted alot of NT verses,with the Greek meaning.Lets see your rebuttal to those verses.

Challenge what I posted,and the meanings..

What is so hard about that?

It is all right there in the verses I posted.It is scripture what I posted.

Scripture says that Jew and Gentile were separated by the Torah..I posted my verses..

I have not seen any scripture from the Torah observant friends here..look over the thread..

Seems strange that those who have posted none,ask me,when I posted alot..

Thanks.

pinetree · Aug 5, 2009

SCRIPTURE!

I am saying what the new testament says..

It proves if a Gentile was brough into the temple,it was defiled under levitical law.Torah..

The Torah law separated Jew from Gentile.That is why they had to be abolished.

Acts 21:28 NASB
crying out, "Men of Israel, come to our aid! This is the man who preaches to all men everywhere against our people and the Law and this place; and besides he has even brought Greeks into the temple and has defiled this holy place."

Gotta love the Greek for defiled.It was levitical,that means it was Torah..

koinoo 2840

Definition:1) to make common
1a) to make (Levitically) unclean, render unhallowed, defile, profane
1b) to declare or count unclean

SpiritPsalmist · Aug 5, 2009

pinetree said:
Ya know sis,I am an understanding person,and I know how you feel..

Sorry,you are a good person,but it would help of you could finally post some scripture.

I posted alot of NT verses,with the Greek meaning.Lets see your rebuttal to those verses.

Challenge what I posted,and the meanings..

What is so hard about that?

It is all right there in the verses I posted.It is scripture what I posted.

Scripture says that Jew and Gentile were separated by the Torah..I posted my verses..

I have not seen any scripture from the Torah observant friends here..look over the thread..

Seems strange that those who have posted none,ask me,when I posted alot..

Thanks.

Whatever you want to believe pinetree.

NaLuvena · Aug 5, 2009

pinetree said:
Then why not Titus..did he not have to fit in?

Perhaps you have more scripture to add to prove your point,rather than ask again,something that was already explained.

My point was that saying that Paul taught that circumcision was done away with is not supported by what he did, according to scripture.

pinetree · Aug 5, 2009

SpiritPsalmist said:
Whatever you want to believe pinetree.

I believe the new testament.

The ordinances,were from the "book of the law" (Moses)

Those are the ceremonial laws,that separated Jew from Gentile.

Ephesians 2:15
by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations. His purpose was to create in himself one new man out of the two, thus making peace,

Here I broke it down for you.

Ephesians2:15
by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law (3551 nomos) of commandments (1785 entole,a commandment of God) contained in ordinances (1378 dogma), so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, thus establishing peace,

So we see that the cermemonial laws,created enmity.It was the law,(nomos)commanded(entole) by God to Moses,thus it was in the ordinances,(dogma)the "book of the Law"..Moses...IE Torah,that seperated Jew and gentile.

That is why Paul,who knew the Torah quite well,said that in Ephesians 2.

Now that those laws are abolished,Jew and Gentile can now be one,where prior to that,they could not because of Torah laws ,that separated the two.

You are welcome to post scripture if you deem this post incorrect.

pinetree · Aug 6, 2009

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