You say it is not in the Bible, then you say it is a mistranslation.There is nothing in the Bible that says "homosexual offenders." That is a mistranslation.
Which is it because obviously it cannot be both can it ?
Upvote
0
Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.
You say it is not in the Bible, then you say it is a mistranslation.There is nothing in the Bible that says "homosexual offenders." That is a mistranslation.
We now agree that a certain prejudice was read into these verses, and that we do not condemn people just because they were born with a different color skin.
It's a leap of interpretation to suggests that the Bible's silence on same-sex marriage equals condemnation of it, or means that same-sex marriage cannot and should not exist. One cannot read "sin" into silence.the Bible only speaks of marriage in context between a man and a woman, time after time. No such relationship exists nor is even mentioned in the Bible although scores of marriages between man and woman are present.
Jesus speaks while teaching about divorce of the religous legality of marriage- meaning it is a sacrament, and speaking of marriage only between a man and a woman.
You can be intimate and caring torwards another and by Biblical definition still be guilty of adultery and fornication. When we hold our feelings to be equal or above God's law, we become guilty of sin through relativism and commit blaspheme. A person can live their life as subjectively as they wish, God's law and judgement is objective.
It's making an assumption to finger a married same-sex couple as "sexually immoral." Nothing in the Bible calls a married same-sex couple "sexually immoral." The Bible is entirely silent on this, as was Jesus.You are stating that prejudice was read into the verses- I was quoting Corinthians 6:9 which is explicity clear. The message in C 6:9 is not to call the sexually immoral our brother.
It's a mistranslation of the original. It was never in the original text; it has been translated inaccurately in modern versions of the Bible.You say it is not in the Bible, then you say it is a mistranslation.
Which is it because obviously it cannot be both can it ?
I am a lay person as I trust you are also. It is not place to claim that phds in history, language, or religion among others have inaccurately translated the Bible.It's a mistranslation of the original. It was never in the original text; it has been translated inaccurately in modern versions of the Bible.
The Bible is entirely silent on this, as was Jesus.
It's a mistranslation of the original. It was never in the original text; it has been translated inaccurately in modern versions of the Bible.
I am a lay person as I trust you are also. It is not place to claim that phds in history, language, or religion among others have inaccurately translated the Bible.
Nor is it my place to tell the Rabbis and Christian theologians, who for thousands of years have instructed that homosexuality is objectivel immoral that the rules have changed.
It's making an assumption to finger a married same-sex couple as "sexually immoral." Nothing in the Bible calls a married same-sex couple "sexually immoral." The Bible is entirely silent on this, as was Jesus.
Fornication and adultery time and again as grave sin and the NTs teaching against sexual immorality is not at all silent.
Fornication and adultery mat very well be condemned as sinful, but loving relations within the context of a committed marriage are neither fornication nor adultery.
I have a PhD in history. It is not "the place" of any theologian to impose "rules" on people. That is not what theologians do.I am a lay person as I trust you are also. It is not place to claim that phds in history, language, or religion among others have inaccurately translated the Bible.
Nor is it my place to tell the Rabbis and Christian theologians, who for thousands of years have instructed that homosexuality is objectivel immoral that the rules have changed.
Fornication and adultery time and again as grave sin and the NTs teaching against sexual immorality is not at all silent.
Lying and stealing harm others, homosexuality doesn't.We all know that lying is a sin and kleptomania is a disorder and yet no one I have heard of yet claims God condones either or is the source of the evil/disorder.
Nope, because his design allows for BOTH heterosexuality AND homosexualityGod created man and woman. If his design was for homosexuality, don't you think he would have just created only one sex ?
The Bible makes reference to polygamy as perfectly acceptible too... seems you are prepared to run the Bible through a couple of nonBiblical filters in regards to other matters, why not homosexuality?All reference to marriage in the Bible is man and woman and Jesus makes clear the legal status of such in his discussions on divorce.
This is incorrect. The fact that an institution had not yet been created or recognized when the various books of the Bible were written does not mean that the institution cannot exist today. Same-sex marriage clearly exists today. You may not wish to recognize it, and that is up to you.Go through all the books in the New Testament. Time and again marriage counseling and discussion of marriage are only the context of man and wife.
Why the absence of homosexual marriage in the Bible ? It is simple: there is no place for homosexual marriage nor relationship within the context of Judism nor Christianity. Therefore it is adultery and fornication.
Well then is it like the handicapped lifestyle?
Not by any literal interpretation.You see the Bible explicity states that homosexual offenders will not inherit the kingdom.
You keep using this phrase yet it is apparent you dont grasp its meaning. To be objective in the moral sense your reasoning would have to be free of your own subjective prejudices. You have never presented anything on the subject that was not entirely subjective in nature.That means that homosexuality is an objective moral disorder decreed by God the Creator.
Those who hold racists views also speak of objective morals and the designs of God. while I have asked many times you have never been able to differentiate just how your arguments differ.No such comment is made against a particular race that I am aware of.
One cannot tell religious minorities unless the confess it so by your logic non-Christians are not entitled to equal rights.So the point is that this group is not entitled to special protection under the law for discrimination.
Just like skin color God designed and created it.Biology, social depravation, psychology, choice- but God does not create homosexual orientation,
In the Christian context, if homosexuality is fornication and adultery- and the Bible also outlaws sodomy, then those involved in same sex relationships are sexually immoral.I have a PhD in history. It is not "the place" of any theologian to impose "rules" on people. That is not what theologians do.
The term "homosexuals" is an inaccurate translation. It is my place to tell you that. And same-sex spousal relationships are neither fornication nor adultery. They are not "sexual immorality."
It is no more and no less than heterosexuality is adultery or fornicationIn the Christian context, if homosexuality is fornication and adultery
- and the Bible also outlaws sodomy,
So they are notthen those involved in same sex relationships are sexually immoral.
Wrong again. Any literal and contextual interruption of scripture cannot be shown to condemn homosexualityRegardless if the term homosexual is used or not, there is ample scripture condemning such relationships and the activity to support the knowledge that the gaylifestyle and relationships are contextually sinful to Christianity.
While the ample evidence is there to condemn it,
Absence is not an assertionthere is not a single thread of evidence to support it.
Corrected:R.I.P. Ryan White.
Actually Ryan White was the hemophilliac who died of AIDs. Still, I fail to see the connection to homosexuality. This is a nice quote from Ryan's mother on the topic, "Ryan always said, 'I'm just like everyone else with AIDS, no matter how I got it.' And he would never have lived as long as he did without the gay community. The people we knew in New York made sure we knew about the latest treatments way before we would have known in Indiana. I hear mothers today say they're not gonna work with no gay community on anything. Well, if it comes to your son's life, you better start changing your heart and your attitude around."So you are blaming the victim of a couple of bigots who one night decided ot kidnap, torture and murder a member of a minority.![]()
How Christian of you
You are speaking of Mathew Shepherd who was trick rolled trying to exchange drugs for sex and was killed after he sexually assaulted someone.So you are blaming the victim of a couple of bigots who one night decided ot kidnap, torture and murder a member of a minority.![]()
How Christian of you
And he would never have lived as long as he did without the gay community.