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Free Will

mepalmer3

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chocolate1000 said:
I think we often have a presumption that free wills are absolute and in my opinion that's wrong. If God is creator and we are creatures, then there's really nothing about us that's absolute. The question of free will then becomes whether we can exercise that free will with integrity. I reckon that answer is yes given that we can make real choices with real consequences. I was given this example by my pastor. It's like a child being given $20 to spend on whatever he likes! The limit is $20 but that doesn't mean that they can't make real choices with real consequences. If he spends $16 he has $4 left. Most of us go through life not being able to afford million dollar yachts but we don't consider that an infringement on the integrity of our free will. There are real limits to our free will but doesn't throw the integrity of our free will into doubt.

That's right. There are different thoughts about free will. I think the one most commonly believed is one that suggests that our options are limited. I actually can't just fly into the air like superman. I can't stop gravity from happening. The best I can do is make an uncaused choice from the options I have before me. But granted, there may be millions or billions of options available, but it is still a limited set of options.
 
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RoboMastodon

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Lifesaver said:
Premisses:
-it is impossible to experience illogical concepts.
-people experience free will.
Conclusion:
-therefore, free will is not an illogical concept.
http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=optical+illusion&btnG=Google+Search

"Free will" is illogical simply because it entails a contradiction. "Will" indicates volition, a motive or a drive towards a specific action. "Free" indicates a lack of restriction or a lack of paramaters determining it. So how is it that an event can be "willed" and "free" at the same time? If it is "free" it means it means that there is no "will" coercing it's nature. That and the obvious:
(1) Determinism and free will are incompatible
(2) Determinism is true.
(3) There is no free will
Well, suppose quantum events really are random (we can't be certain but we know for sure that determinism and locality are mutually incompatible). Well, if they are truely random and uncaused, then we don't author those events. Also, if there is an omniscient God who can see the future (i.e. know what we do before we do), then the universe must function as a deterministic process in order for such a prediction to be possible.
The above argument becomes:
(1) Determinism and free will are incompatible.
(2) Indeterminism and free will are incompatible.
(2) Either determinism or indeterminism is true.
(3) There is no free will.
 
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mepalmer3

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RoboMastodon said:
http://www.google.com/search?hl=en&q=optical+illusion&btnG=Google+Search

"Free will" is illogical simply because it entails a contradiction. "Will" indicates volition, a motive or a drive towards a specific action. "Free" indicates a lack of restriction or a lack of paramaters determining it. So how is it that an event can be "willed" and "free" at the same time? If it is "free" it means it means that there is no "will" coercing it's nature. That and the obvious:
(1) Determinism and free will are incompatible
(2) Determinism is true.
(3) There is no free will

A lot of people mean "self-determined" when they say free will. The basic idea is that people are the cause for their actions. While our environment and genetics provide some instincts for us, we can in fact go against an instinct and choose what we want to do. The choice is free in the sense that it is uncaused by any external force.

It's really not that difficult of a concept. Neither is the idea of a God that creates something out of his own desire, and gives a portion of his creation that same ability.
 
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Lifesaver

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RoboMastodon said:
"Free will" is illogical simply because it entails a contradiction. "Will" indicates volition, a motive or a drive towards a specific action. "Free" indicates a lack of restriction or a lack of paramaters determining it. So how is it that an event can be "willed" and "free" at the same time? If it is "free" it means it means that there is no "will" coercing it's nature.
False.
Individual wants A. He could want B.
Free does not mean complete lack of parameters and restrictions (no-one can will something which they don't think is good; that is already one big restriction), but that more than one result is possible, thus making a choice contingent and not necessary.

That and the obvious:
(1) Determinism and free will are incompatible
(2) Determinism is true.
(3) There is no free will
Well, suppose quantum events really are random (we can't be certain but we know for sure that determinism and locality are mutually incompatible). Well, if they are truely random and uncaused, then we don't author those events. Also, if there is an omniscient God who can see the future (i.e. know what we do before we do), then the universe must function as a deterministic process in order for such a prediction to be possible.
The above argument becomes:
(1) Determinism and free will are incompatible.
(2) Indeterminism and free will are incompatible.
(2) Either determinism or indeterminism is true.
(3) There is no free will.
Already adressed; you simply assume the only two possibilities are randomness or determinism, both obviously incompatible with free will. However, this is only so in physical phenomena, which is exactly where there isn't (and can't be) a will to begin with, as the will is necessarily non-physical.
You start by assuming it can't exist and then conclude it doesn't exist.
 
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joemaloy

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"Also, if there is an omniscient God who can see the future (i.e. know what we do before we do), then the universe must function as a deterministic process in order for such a prediction to be possible."

Thats my point. And for God to do so then there are NO varibles.
And you are going to do exactly what he knew what you was going to do and there is NO choice.

There are some people that want to feel that they have free will because they want to feel like they have control over their lives.

Im really tring to see both sides of the equation, but it just aint working.

Lets do an example:
Choose a number between 1,2 and 3. And you sit there saying to yourself :scratch: ...... I choose #2; Now it doesnt matter that you "feel in your heart" that you have chossen the number that you had because Gods fore-knowledge, Has already "beforehand" canceled out the other varibles, which mean you didnt choose anything.
 
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RoboMastodon

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Lifesaver said:
False.
Individual wants A. He could want B.
Free does not mean complete lack of parameters and restrictions (no-one can will something which they don't think is good; that is already one big restriction), but that more than one result is possible, thus making a choice contingent and not necessary.
If determinism is true, then it is only possible for the individual to want A. If indeterminism is true then whether or not individual wants A or B is solely contingent on a set of uncaused variables. We cannot author uncaused variables because they are, by definition, uncaused. Since the variables are uncaused, then there can exist no mechanism by which to predict their values and as such, it can be said that they are random.

Already adressed; you simply assume the only two possibilities are randomness or determinism, both obviously incompatible with free will. However, this is only so in physical phenomena, which is exactly where there isn't (and can't be) a will to begin with, as the will is necessarily non-physical.
You start by assuming it can't exist and then conclude it doesn't exist.
Can you tell me exactly what lies between indeterminism and determinism? Also, where is this "You start by assuming it can't exist" in the logical argument I presented? In addition, you haven't demonstrated that any aspect of human thought or consciousness to be non-physical except for unsubstantiated religious justification.
mepalmer3 said:
The choice is free in the sense that it is uncaused by any external force.
If by "uncaused by external force" you mean that the causal events that directly precede the choice are solely internal, then I could program an AI that is "self-determined" in that it is uncaused by any external force. Does the AI have free will? If by "uncaused by external force" you mean "nothing external affects" it, then we humans don't have free will because our environment plays a major roll in affecting our decisions.
 
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Lifesaver

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RoboMastodon said:
If determinism is true, then it is only possible for the individual to want A. If indeterminism is true then whether or not individual wants A or B is solely contingent on a set of uncaused variables. We cannot author uncaused variables because they are, by definition, uncaused. Since the variables are uncaused, then there can exist no mechanism by which to predict their values and as such, it can be said that they are random.
There are no uncaused variables.

Can you tell me exactly what lies between indeterminism and determinism?
Not really between them. There is the contingent event which depends on the will, and which can take more than one way out, though not randomly: voluntariness.

Also, where is this "You start by assuming it can't exist" in the logical argument I presented?
"(2) Either determinism or indeterminism is true."

In addition, you haven't demonstrated that any aspect of human thought or consciousness to be non-physical except for unsubstantiated religious justification.
Men want things. The object of their desire is not in their brain; an observer can observe their brain, but not their will. Therefore, brain reactions and volitions of the will are different. In fact, volitions of the will are different from any physical entity one may come up with; therefore, the will is not physical.
It is impossible even to think that human thought or consciousness may be physical; though it is possible to think and sustain that the information of human thought may be present in the body, under a different language (brain reactions, and not as it is experienced by the subject).

Also notice I used not one religious justificiation in the whole thread; I have not argued from faith even once.
 
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Crispie

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"Actually, anyone can be saved if they truly seek God and the truth. How can God choose who is saved and who isn't, if we are in control of that by our freewill? Good question. God created the universe, knowing the consequence of every grain of sand he put on this earth, he knew that how he created the universe, and how he interacted with it would ultimately decide who goes to heaven and who doesn't. Now, with this knowledge, God did what he did, and created what he did, knowing what we would do with our freewill as a result of his doings. This is how he chose out his people, because though we have freewill, God is in ultimate control, knowing the consequence of every action he does, and how that will effect this world. It just so happens that by your free will you may choose or not choose God, but it is because of God that these things have happened to you that result in the choice you make. I hope you understand this, and maybe you will have a better understanding of how everyone has a chance to be saved. Gods actions ultimately decide what a person will do with their free will."

A quote that deals with salvation, free will, and how God still controls the universe.
 
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DanteRisen

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joemaloy said:
And you are going to do exactly what he knew what you was going to do and there is NO choice.
Lets do an example:
Choose a number between 1,2 and 3. And you sit there saying to yourself :scratch: ...... I choose #2; Now it doesnt matter that you "feel in your heart" that you have chossen the number that you had because Gods fore-knowledge, Has already "beforehand" canceled out the other varibles, which mean you didnt choose anything.

Just because God knows you are going to choose 2 or 3 or even 1 doesn't mean you don't have the choice. It just means he KNOWS what you are going to choose. It's not as if God said, "you shall choose 2." If he were to do that, then you would have no choice because he told you which to pick. If there were no free will, then there would be no reason for have sent Jesus to Earth. If this had been the case then this would be a perfect world because we could not CHOOSE to sin. Adam and Eve chose to eat the "apple", just Cain chose to kill Abel. Without free will, this is not a fallen world.
 
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RoboMastodon

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Lifesaver said:
There are no uncaused variables.
See quantum events.
Not really between them. There is the contingent event which depends on the will, and which can take more than one way out, though not randomly: voluntariness.
In this case is determinism true or not? Edit - you have basically defined a case that is neither determinism or indeterminism (illogical) for the sole purpose of allowing this "free will." Explain the nature of this "voluntariness", for me. I'm not exactly sure what you mean.
"(2) Either determinism or indeterminism is true."
This isn't assuming "free will does not exist" it's a basic logical tautology--Law of Excluded Middle. Either determinism exists or it doesn't. If it doesn't then indeterminism is true, by definition.
Men want things.
True.
The object of their desire is not in their brain;
Substantiate this. There are chemical levels of certain neurotransmitters and activity in certain parts of the brain associated with basic desires such as sex and hunger. More complex desires can be attributed to higher-order brain functions that are not so easy to localize though--this is a technological limitation.
an observer can observe their brain, but not their will.
Substantiate this. Beyond technological limitations, I don't see how the entire state of the brain from current potentials of each neuron to the neutransmitters present in each synapse and synpatic vesicle could not reveal a person's desire.
Therefore, brain reactions and volitions of the will are different. In fact, volitions of the will are different from any physical entity one may come up with; therefore, the will is not physical.
Where does this "will" come from, then? How does it interact with the matter in our brain to produce our behavior? How can we scientifically test for this hypothesis?
It is impossible even to think that human thought or consciousness may be physical; though it is possible to think and sustain that the information of human thought may be present in the body, under a different language (brain reactions, and not as it is experienced by the subject).
Consider this analogy:
Unreal Tournament 2004 is a video game that runs on a computer. A computer is composed of a series of circuits and transistors all of which transmit and store information (analogous to neurons in the brain). It would be quite impractical to "observe" ut2k4 (as in, the actual game) simply from the electrons zipping around the wires in the circuitry. However, this doesn't mean that the actual playing of the game is non-physical. This is because the actual game is a few levels of abstraction beyond the zipping around of electrons. The information is organized at the graphical level (in your video card), at the acoustic level (sound card), at the physics/collisions level (cpu) and then all that is translated and converted into sets of sets of pixels (series of frames) which comes out as a bunch of guys going around shooting each other. Similarly, thought and human consciousness are just several levels of abstractions beyond the zipping around of electrons inside a human brain. It's just that the human brain is a lot more complex.

Edit - I must ask you: in your opinion, do animals have a "non-physical" will? Plants? Protists? Bacteria? Viruses? Zygotes?
 
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RoboMastodon

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DanteRisen said:
Just because God knows you are going to choose 2 or 3 or even 1 doesn't mean you don't have the choice. It just means he KNOWS what you are going to choose. It's not as if God said, "you shall choose 2." If he were to do that, then you would have no choice because he told you which to pick. If there were no free will, then there would be no reason for have sent Jesus to Earth. If this had been the case then this would be a perfect world because we could not CHOOSE to sin. Adam and Eve chose to eat the "apple", just Cain chose to kill Abel. Without free will, this is not a fallen world.
If God (omniscience is a given) came down from the sky and told you "I predict that tomorrow at 3:15 pm you will pick vanilla ice cream over chocolate." Now, when 3:15 comes around you will now have no choice but to pick vanilla ice cream, for doing otherwise would go against God's omniscience. Omniscience and free will are incompatible.
"Actually, anyone can be saved if they truly seek God and the truth. How can God choose who is saved and who isn't, if we are in control of that by our freewill? Good question. God created the universe, knowing the consequence of every grain of sand he put on this earth, he knew that how he created the universe, and how he interacted with it would ultimately decide who goes to heaven and who doesn't. Now, with this knowledge, God did what he did, and created what he did, knowing what we would do with our freewill as a result of his doings. This is how he chose out his people, because though we have freewill, God is in ultimate control, knowing the consequence of every action he does, and how that will effect this world. It just so happens that by your free will you may choose or not choose God, but it is because of God that these things have happened to you that result in the choice you make. I hope you understand this, and maybe you will have a better understanding of how everyone has a chance to be saved. Gods actions ultimately decide what a person will do with their free will."
Translation: "even though God controls everything, including you, you still have free will anyway." =/
 
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Socrastein

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Self-determinism does not escape the issue.

So we cause our own choices. Is there a cause for that cause? Or does our will or soul or whatever is the self-determined agent, just act without cause? If so, then self-determinism is just an indeterminate factor in choices. So plugging in a random variable does not grant free will.

If there are reasons for the choice, then we're back to determinism and either we self-determine every reaoson ad infinitum (Impossible) or at some point the reasons for our actions leave our control.

Further, it's ridiculous for you, Lifesaver, to keep saying that there are more options than determinism and indeterminism. Do you have any knowledge of logic whatsoever? Like Robo said and I believe I said earlier, it's one of the most fundamental axioms of logic, the Law of Excluded Middle, and you're trying to sit here and act as if it's not important.
 
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Lifesaver

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Socrastein said:
Brain states are called such because we are referring to a third party observation. Of course observing brain states from the 'outside' isn't the same as experiencing the brain state itself. Our experiences, our qualia, is what it's like to be a brain, what it's like to be brain states. An outside observer sees electrons and neurons, because it is not privy to those actual patterns. However, the brain itself IS those electrons and neurons and patterns, and thus from a 1st person perspective, so to speak, it isn't merely outside observation, it's experience.
You say that pattern X isn't the same as experiencing the color red. However, this is only true if you are referring to what I mentioned above. Of course observing someone experiencing the color red isn't the same as experiencing it - that's not a profound statement, and that's certainly not proof of a soul. If you could be the brain with said pattern, you would be experiencing the color red - they are the same in that sense. To postulate anything more is erroneous and once again a bad violation of parsimony.
Sure, it is possible that the information of our experiences is present in the brain, as reactions, and I never contested this. But the reactions themselves, which can be measured and observed, are not our experiences, which cannot be observed.

You can't be serious. Do you have any clue how outdated your (Well not really YOUR arguments) are? The first bolded section is completely unsubstantiated, and it is not self-evident nor absolute. Quantum mechanics already has plenty of evidence to challenge this, as well as theoretical physics. Causality only appears to be a macroscopic phenomenon. Also, there is nothing inherently indicative of causality between event A and event B - we put the connection there. For all we know, events could all happen without regard to one another, and we are programmed to see causality among them.
I see that you believe physics, a natural science, may have some relevance on an argument regarding cause and effect.
First, no even quantum events are caused. If the particle did not exist and was not in such and such conditions, it could not move as it does (though the movement itself is not determined).

As for your doubting of causality, it is I who must charge you with having no clue. If you are willing to say (as, quite unfortunately, some philosophers have in centuries past) that one event does not follow from another, but that they are all just unconnected successions which are so constant to allow us to fool them for causes and effects and even to predict what will happen, then you have either discarded reason altogether or you must believe in God, who would be responsible, in such a scenario, for ordering the succession of unrelated events.

As for whether cause and effect exists: you feel hungry, you get yourself an apple because you are hungry. Cause and effect, right there on your will.

Your second bold is again completely unsubstantiated. Small violations of the conservation of energy due to Heisenberg's uncertainty principles accomodate uncaused actions, energy from nothing, and various other counter-intuitive but theoretically and experimentally accurate concepts.
This is what happens when scientists begin to opine on philosophy. Our materialist age has produced many very good natural scientists, but so many bad philosophers and theologians as well.
There is no such a thing as an uncaused movement; what we consider uncaused means no external cause (of course, there is nothing without an external cause to, at least, bring it into existence).

These arguments may have made sense back around the time of the Summa Theologica and St. Thomas Aquinas, but they are both logically and emperically flawed these days.
And here you reveal your greatest error. Logic, Socrastein, does not "make sense" at one time and at another one ceases to be. The truth is one, and cannot change; from Socrates to Einstein, the very same principles were true and will always continue to be true.
What the Scholastic philosophers believed in matters concerning physics, for instance, has been shown to be largely wrong, to be very poor representations of reality, in need of constant repair and addition of new entities for every new observation.
However, what was developed in terms of philosophy, and among these the greatest was St. Thomas Aquinas, is completely valid.
And it isn't surprising that natural sciences have gone through such an advance while philosophy and theology have declined so sharply (with notable exceptions). The first are dependent mostly on human experience, and on man's ability to accurately describe the information of the senses, with the aid of reason to postulate the principles at work behind every particular occurence. With philosophy, however, what is more important is the use of reason itself, with observation occupying a much less important position; and in this respect, mankind has been in a steady fall from Renaissance, to Romanticism, to Modernism and to the contemporary age, each one denying reason and logic to a greater extent than the past generation.

The rational person would assume that there feelings were mistaken, until they saw reason to believe the logic was invalid.
Yes, Socrastein, but if you'll read the argument attentively, you'll see that it doesn't matter whether the person's feelings are mistaken or not; the very fact that they have the experience means free will is not illogical. And yes, I have answered your argument, and continue to, over and over again.

No, I do not experience my life as though I could have chosen differently. This sort of idea comes from a lack of reflection.
So you admit it is possible to have this sort of idea.
However, it is impossible to have an illogical idea, even if it exists only inside our minds.

No Lifesaver, both logically and intuitionistically I am fully aware that I am bound by my desires and my circumstances to act the way I act, and to act no other possible way. This is quite obvious to me through reflection and rational consideration.
My condolences for your having such skewed perception, and confusing it with reason. However, since the argument presented does not rely on any individual having the experience, but on the experience being possible (which you concede-"comes from a lack of reflection").
 
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Lifesaver

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Socrastein said:
Like Robo said and I believe I said earlier, it's one of the most fundamental axioms of logic, the Law of Excluded Middle, and you're trying to sit here and act as if it's not important.
On this very thread you enunciated the law of excluded middle: that a proposition is either true or false.
Nothing to do with determinism or randomness, which are not the only two options (though you claim they are) for how causation works.
It is I who must ask you whether you know logic.

"Of course everything is either black or white. Law of excluded middle!" - this is basically your current argument.
 
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RoboMastodon

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Lifesaver said:
First, no even quantum events are caused. If the particle did not exist and was not in such and such conditions, it could not move as it does (though the movement itself is not determined).
The physicists would disagree with you. Suppose I have a photon and I project it in the direction of a 50% reflective mirror.
Possibility 1: It reflects. What caused it to reflects, as opposed to being absorbed?
Possibility 2: It absorbs. What caused it to absorb, as opposed to being reflected?
It seems that the reflection/absorption, in this case, is uncaused. Unless you want to argue for something silly like nonlocality.
Lifesaver said:
On this very thread you enunciated the law of excluded middle: that a proposition is either true or false.
Nothing to do with determinism or randomness, which are not the only two options (though you claim they are) for how causation works.
It is I who must ask you whether you know logic.
It's a matter of definitions. Either determinism is true or it isn't. If determinism is false, then, by definition, indeterminism is true.
"Of course everything is either black or white. Law of excluded middle!" - this is basically your current argument.
Actually, either everything is either black or it is not. "not black" is not the definition of "white".
 
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Lifesaver

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RoboMastodon said:
Suppose I have a photon and I project it in the direction of a 50% reflective mirror.
Possibility 1: It reflects. What caused it to reflects, as opposed to being absorbed?
Possibility 2: It absorbs. What caused it to absorb, as opposed to being reflected?
It seems that the reflection/absorption, in this case, is uncaused. Unless you want to argue for something silly like nonlocality.

This is an example of that possibility you mentioned: randomness.
The cause of its being absorbed is its being thrown against the mirror.
The cause of its being reflected is its being thrown against the mirror.

You see that every event has a cause, even though one or the other might happen, and randomly so, since there is no will in the photon.

Actually, either everything is either black or it is not. "not black" is not the definition of "white".
Precisely. And it is exactly this analogous truth which you must have in mind: "not deterministic" is not the definition of "randomness".
 
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RoboMastodon

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Lifesaver said:
This is an example of that possibility you mentioned: randomness.
The cause of its being absorbed is its being thrown against the mirror.
The cause of its being reflected is its being thrown against the mirror.
So tell me. Suppose x=0, for photon absorbed, and x=1 for photon reflected. What causes the value of x? It seems that either your definition of "caused" and "uncaused" conflicts with the definition I'm used to or you are misunderstanding the nature of causality.
 
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Lifesaver

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RoboMastodon said:
So tell me. Suppose x=0, for photon absorbed, and x=1 for photon reflected. What causes the value of x? It seems that either your definition of "caused" and "uncaused" conflicts with the definition I'm used to or you are misunderstanding the nature of causality.
The values of a mathematical function do not take place in time, and thus they are not caused; what causes the function itself is the person who writes it down/ thinks about it (or, if we consider that they exist outside of time, the mind of God).
What causes absorption ("0") or reflection ("1"), is the photon being thrown against the mirror. The effect of this cause is not determined, though.
 
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RoboMastodon

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Lifesaver said:
The values of a mathematical function do not take place in time, and thus they are not caused; what causes the function itself is the person who writes it down/ thinks about it (or, if we consider that they exist outside of time, the mind of God).
What causes absorption ("0") or reflection ("1"), is the photon being thrown against the mirror. The effect of this cause is not determined, though.
The photon being projected at the mirror only causes x to have a value. The actual value has no cause. In my definition, in order for event A to be caused by set of circumstances B, then entirety of the properties in A have to be determined by B. i.e. When you flip a coin, you and all of the physical variables that go into the toss (rotational impulse, air resistance, distance off of ground, material ground is composed of, etc...) cause the coin to be either heads or tails.
 
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Lifesaver

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RoboMastodon said:
The photon being projected at the mirror only causes x to have a value. The actual value has no cause. In my definition, in order for event A to be caused by set of circumstances B, then entirety of the properties in A have to be determined by B. i.e. When you flip a coin, you and all of the physical variables that go into the toss (rotational impulse, air resistance, distance off of ground, material ground is composed of, etc...) cause the coin to be either heads or tails.
Then, we have:
quantum event: random
flip of the coin: determined

Both, however, have causes, because everything that exists necessarily has a cause, except the uncaused cause, which, since it doesn't change and its existence depends on nothing other than itself, is not caused.
 
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