What does "God" mean in this sense? Must God be a person?
Firstly, let me admit that I was wrong to assume that you were not a thoughtful person due to your opening question. Your interactions have significant thought behind them and I rushed to judgement.
As to God as an explanatory ultimate His nature must explain the origin of the features we see in our universe. To create space one must not require space. To create time one must be outside of time. To create matter one must be immaterial.
God is spaceless, timeless, and immaterial
To be the primary cause or explanatory ultimate he must be eternal/uncaused otherwise we get into an infinite causal regress.
To determine personalism we must articulate a few premises.
God is eternal.
God is unchanging (doesn't gain new attributes or properties)
The cause of our universe must be sufficient to cause it.
If God, being eternal, had sufficient capability to create the universe and was impersonal, we would expect to see a universe that was eternal in the past. Instead we see a 13.7 billion year old universe.
The reason being that an impersonal God would act (not like an agent) like a force of nature. He wouldn't be able to stop creation from happening. Only a personal being can make choices of when to act. Since our universe is finite in the past we know God is personal.
This would exclude religious inferences like Buddhism and Hinduism but would not distinguish between Judaism, Christianity, or Islam.
I'm not so sure it's fine-tuned for life. As far as we can tell, the vast majority of the universe is unable to sustain life.
Since the early 1960s we have seen astrophysicists discuss the remarkable fact that the initial quantities of matter and energy as well as the laws of nature all appear to be fine-tuned for life. This claim was a scientific observation that was theologically neutral. Robert Jastrow, Brandon Carter, Martin Rees, Barrow and Tipler were the early documentors of this phenomenon. The number 1 atheist philosopher in the world for the second half of the 20th century, Antony Flew, claimed that the fine-tuning argument for the existence of God was responsible for him reversing his position and becoming a theist.
It is presented here:
And if there are because God decided it, then it's not actually morality, it's just whatever God likes. Meaning, if God were evil, then evil would be "objectively" good", right?
Called the Euthyphro Dilemma (found in Plato's Dialogues)
Is something good because the gods recognize the good, or because the gods declare it to be good.
This is poses a dilemma. Either the gods recognize something that is good outside of themselves which makes us wonder if things like mercy or justice exist outside of the gods. Or the gods command something to be good arbitrarily. So murdering one's neighbor rather than loving one's neighbor could be said to be "good."
But this is a false dilemma. The Judeo-Christian God IS the good. His nature is good and the closer our actions resemble how God would have acted in the same situation, the more moral we are said to become.
We do receive these moral proscriptions and prescriptions in the form of commands, but they are based in God's all-good nature. And are not a function of arbitrary choice.
Sure, there may be such a thing as God (or gods, for that matter). The question is then who he/she/they are.
We cannot determine much about the nature of God/gods from these natural theological arguments. We could eliminate gods because they are not eternal in the past. So we would run into the problem of an infinite regress of causes. So New Atheists often make this false claim when they ask, "Who caused God."
What they miss is that monotheism is the belief in an eternal, uncaused being.
To distinguish aspects of God's nature we need to engage the scriptures. Further we would need to find out if Judeo-Christian or Islam is a better explanation of the data we see across history.
If somebody claims the bible is inspired by God, for example, I think they should have reasonable arguments for that, or admit that "it's true because it says it's true."
This is universally true, yes.
Claims must be justified in order to move them from beliefs into knowledge.
Often the arguments for Scripture are of two types:
External and Internal.
External involves historical examination for accuracy and relies on archeology and other extant historical accounts.
In this category is prophecy. We have many fulfilled prophecies where we have future predictions that are later recorded to be fulfilled. These are very specific in nature. They are documented several hundred to almost a 1000 years before events occured. They are recognized as fulfilled by enemies who are dubious initially anyways.
The internal consistency of over 40 authors, from all walks of life, Slave to King, from many different cultural perspectives, writing over a period of 1500 years, about a host of controversial topics is unparalleled.
But no Christian scholar says, "The Bible said it, I believe it, that settles it."
The disciples of Jesus presented evidence for their claims (see Acts 13-19). They did so to hostile audiences that had good reasons to reject the Christian claims, as there was much persecution for those who converted to Christianity. The whole early church suffered no less that 10 martyrdoms killing, many estimates, over a million Christians.
Tertullian, one of the 2nd century Church Fathers wrote that "the blood of martyrs is the seed of the Church", implying that the martyrs' sacrifice led to a testimony or evidence for others to convert.
I'm not following you. I'm not saying anything about cars. I'm asking whether/how the claim that humans can have free will in this life and the next, are making any sense.
The car/bluetooth analogy was to highlight a mereological issue. Namely denying existence of a whole, and then exploring the existence of parts of that whole. But it is not a fruitful discussion, so I propose we ignore my comment altogether.