C
Christownsme
Guest
In most all of the north american dictionaries the word fornication means having sex in an unmarried state. However looking at the context of 1 Cor 6:12-20 and the original Greek or Latin definitions of the word, it only mentions sex of harlotry in nature.
In 1 Cor 7:1-9, Paul says to avoid fornication, or harlotry, a man and a woman should have a wife/husband. It says if they can't contain, it is better to marry than to burn with passion. It doesn't say it is better to marry than to commit fornication. It doesn't say burning with passion and not being able to contain equals fornication. It doesn't say that a couple seeking to get married are committing fornication either in the context of 1 Cor 6 and 7 OR in the definition of fornication in the original language.
My girlfriend and me have a really tough situation with our healthcare situation that getting married may take some laws to change. I am disabled and have very expensive health care needs, and right now Medicare and Medicaid is covering the fees along with my drug coverage. Her income would bump me off that, and I have been advised at this point not to risk getting bumped off Medicaid by getting married because a new supplemental health insurance under the Affordable Care Act would cost too much for our combined income.
The question is "what is fornication, as defined by the original language?" The word fornication was first used in the 14th century. From the Latin "fornicatus," it means having intercourse with a harlot. From the Greek "porneuo", it means harlotry. So why does the church adopt the notion that sex that can't be contained between two committed adults who haven't married yet is considered fornication?
I'd like to believe that God understands our situation. But I can't form God into my idea of what he should be like. That's not right. I want the truth about this matter. I believe He is working to help us find a way to get married. But His timing is different than mine.
If anybody has comments about this, please post here. I have been in much prayer about this.
In 1 Cor 7:1-9, Paul says to avoid fornication, or harlotry, a man and a woman should have a wife/husband. It says if they can't contain, it is better to marry than to burn with passion. It doesn't say it is better to marry than to commit fornication. It doesn't say burning with passion and not being able to contain equals fornication. It doesn't say that a couple seeking to get married are committing fornication either in the context of 1 Cor 6 and 7 OR in the definition of fornication in the original language.
My girlfriend and me have a really tough situation with our healthcare situation that getting married may take some laws to change. I am disabled and have very expensive health care needs, and right now Medicare and Medicaid is covering the fees along with my drug coverage. Her income would bump me off that, and I have been advised at this point not to risk getting bumped off Medicaid by getting married because a new supplemental health insurance under the Affordable Care Act would cost too much for our combined income.
The question is "what is fornication, as defined by the original language?" The word fornication was first used in the 14th century. From the Latin "fornicatus," it means having intercourse with a harlot. From the Greek "porneuo", it means harlotry. So why does the church adopt the notion that sex that can't be contained between two committed adults who haven't married yet is considered fornication?
I'd like to believe that God understands our situation. But I can't form God into my idea of what he should be like. That's not right. I want the truth about this matter. I believe He is working to help us find a way to get married. But His timing is different than mine.
If anybody has comments about this, please post here. I have been in much prayer about this.
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