Why would it refer to any kind of sex outside of marriage if they explicitly list the laws of sexual morality in Leviticus 18? Why make a special mention of every single one of those different things they found immoral if we're supposed to just assume that any sex outside marriage is a sin. Just say "any" then. If they list off specific things, I see no reason to think they thought other things were sinful as well. It would be like adding to the list without reason. Why not just say that kissing outside of marriage is sinful as well? There has to be a good reason to add things to that list in order for me to think it should be.
Sigh...I don't even know what precise point you are debating here in this paragraph. As to Paul's usage of the word
πορνείας (porneias) in 1 Corinthians 7:2, it looks like the context shapes his meaning to specifically express "fornication," but the term can also be used more generally...
Here's a list of the usages of this word in the New Testament, along with a small comparison of how it has been translated in some of the more prominent English versions.
He didn't expect them to succeed at being celibate and unmarried, but he did say that it would be the best thing. He said it would be best if everyone was like him (conceited much? ha!).
I'm just going to roll my eyes at this comment, Nicholas. From what Paul fully writes, not only in chapter 7, but in the entire letter of 1 Corinthians, he is doing anything but expecting the Corinthians to be celibate, and there is little in his writing that indicates conceit on his part either.
When you read, what goes on in your head? Do you approach each individual verse or sentence as a disconnected entity from the rest of what is written? (You shouldn't!) I'm guessing you don't, but when you say the things you say, or interpret biblical ideas the way you do, I begin to get the sense that you're just a "deductive hack." Deduction is useful, but it has limits, limits you don't seem to recognize, especially as applied to the fragmentary thoughts represented in the New Testament.
They also had a double standard for men and women back in the day. Women were shamed for being prostitutes, but where's the evidence that men were shamed for visiting them?
Well, there is another related term that Paul uses,
πόρνοις (pornos), which does put a label on the kind of person (typically a guy) who chases skirts ... even those related to "money dates."
Here's a list of the usages of this word, too, in the New Testament. (I've always thought it interesting that the KJV translators chose the term, "harlot-monger" as an English equivalent. That makes it sound especially nasty.)
It seems there is a lot more that needs to be said in order for it to actually say all premarital sex is a sin for both men and women.
Some of this is only semantic confusion in our attempts to compare social protocols specific to different cultures in different ages ...
In other words, yes, perhaps something like "common law marriage" could be within the parameters of biblical marriage, as long as the couple is of the opposite sex AND have decided to be committed to each other for life AND aren't necessarily living out their relationship in an anonymous way, unaccountable to the surrounding community, their family, or God. [However, I think this is still stretching at the seams of what God would prefer to see in people's pre-marital relationships...]
So Paul was giving advice based on the fact that he thought the end was nigh, but he was dead wrong. So why should we listen to his advice?
No, he wasn't dead wrong, but since that issue isn't a moral one, I'm not going to expound upon it here, especially since I'm not wanting to get this thread closed because all of this is turning into that dreaded "A" word, which isn't really supposed to be taking place in this particular forum.
What's that part in the Bible that says that all women should cover their heads in church? I forget where, but I'd bet you're familiar with it though. Should women still do that? No. Because it applied to a specific situation that was specific to those times.
I agree with your general conclusions here, but should Christian women be free to dress and look like men today? Or, more interestingly, vice versa? I'm thinking that the underlying idea Paul stated about women and head coverings, however culturally specific and ensconced it was for 1st century Corinth, still has "some" application today.
Since that chapter was based at least in part on what Paul thought was going on back then, it's going to take more than one verse to convince me that we should apply that verse to our modern times.
Yeah...me too.
I don't think it's a whole other discussion at all. We're discussing whether all forms of fornication are a sin, are we not? I would say that there is plenty of evidence to say that hooking up with someone you just met in a bar is a sin, sure. But I would not say there is evidence hardly at all that a couple who has been dating for 6 months, has fallen in love, but doesn't feel ready to make the financial, spiritual, emotional commitment of marriage should refrain from making love.
And where in the New Testament does it indicate that there is a "free for all" for making love, as long as two people are in love? I'd say there's probably "no" evidence for that ...
2PhiloVoid