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If Christ in fact atoned for even one sin, He of necessity atoned for all sins.
They would definitely be included. But He did not atone for particular sins, or some sin or some kind of sin.l He atoned for the sin of the world. There is not a single sin not covered by His Blood. It is impossible to separate sin, one from another. Sin is sin. If He atoned for sin it of necessity is all sin.Not so. Scripture clearly states that Christ died for the sins of His People. Not all are His people.
nobdysfool,
They would definitely be included. But He did not atone for particular sins, or some sin or some kind of sin.l He atoned for the sin of the world. There is not a single sin not covered by His Blood. It is impossible to separate sin, one from another. Sin is sin. If He atoned for sin it of necessity is all sin.
There is not a single sin not covered by His Blood.
then explain exactly what is the PURPOSE of atoning for the "unforgivable sin" ?
I voted a) because He calls all me to Him that they should turn from their sins, receive Him as Lord and have life eternal.
If you mean 'all without discrimination' then sure "all" are outwardly called , but if you mean 'all without exception' then you have three problems ;
1. Not everyone has heard the Gospel , so not everyone has been "called". were the Amalekites called ?
2. Even amongst those who have heard the Gospel , it is clear that many have heard a distortion of the good news , the Gospel does not go out with equal force.
3. The Indiscriminate call to sinners is in no way a contradiction of definite Atonement , for : many are called BUT FEW ARE CHOSEN.
If Christ in fact atoned for even one sin, He of necessity atoned for all sins.
Not so. Scripture clearly states that Christ died for the sins of His People. Not all are His people.
Hello all,
I suggest that a logical error has been made here in the 2nd post. Let's say for the sake of argument that Christ died for the sins of all people, then wouldn't it also be true that He died for the sins of His people as well? For are not His people a subset of all people? (And are not all people in some sense "His people"?) So then, if He died for the sins of all, then He surely died for the sins of some.
I think the real question is who are those who benefit from His death? Is it all, or is it some? (And what must one do to become one of these beneficiaries?)
That's an excellent way of putting it.I voted "All the sins of all humans", because I believe that Jesus is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.
I voted "All the sins of all humans", because I believe that Jesus is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.
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so all humans have had their sins taken away ?
wow !
I am certain everyone will be pleased they are going to heaven !!!
That's just what my bible says. It could very well be that other versions say that Jesus is the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of only some of the world, but I rather doubt it.
God is the Savior of all men, especially (not 'exclusively') of believers.
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