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Agreed."HELL" research...
The word "hell" from the Greek is mentioned 88 times in the Bible: ...BUT...
64 times as the Hebrew word "Sheol" in the OT, ...the lowest grave in the earth
11 times as "Hades" in the NT
1 time as "Tartarus",
12 times as "Geenna".
RESULT: inaccurate translations of similar words!
Answer me this then, just for the sake of consistency. Why does your Psalm 16 understanding, in your attempt to enlighten me, not line up with Matt 10 then? Is the soul NOT IN HELL in the OT according to your theology, but then it IS IN HELL in the NT according to your theology in Matthew.The word for hell is sheol, the grave as shown in Psalm 16:10
One thing I don't like about these discussions is how tossing Scripture back and forth diminishes the original intent and message of the text.Jesus said in Matthew 25:41, "Depart from Me you workers of iniquity".
If God says He won't be in a place, who are we to say different?
This is from the Greek to English Interlinear New Testament, published by World Publishing (notice the word "separated" is not there). That changes the meaning:2 Thessalonians 1:9 They will suffer the penalty of eternal destruction, separated from the presence of the Lord and the glory of His might,
2 Thessalonians 1:8 in flaming fire, giving vengeance to those not knowing God, and to those not obeying the good news of our Lord Jesus Christ;
All that talk about this fire being purifying falls apart when God says it is "Vengeance".
If you had quoted both passages I cited instead of just one you would see the truth.2 Thessalonians 1:9 They will suffer the penalty of eternal destruction, separated from the presence of the Lord and the glory of His might,
Jesus said in Matthew 25:41, "Depart from Me you workers of iniquity".
If God says He won't be in a place, who are we to say different?
Of course it's allegorical. But Jesus' lessons were always meant to portray a truth."Depart from me" doesn't have to mean God isn't in a place. It doesn't have to be a literal physical leaving. In fact....this was a parable that Jesus spoke, so it has spiritual meaning. It's not meant to be taken as a literal description of what's to come (I mean...it's goats and sheep, for one example).
The key here to getting the refreshing is Repenting and turning to God.n Greek Orthodox theology, it's believed that ALL will be in God's presence (it's just that those that don't desire God's love will be "destroyed" or "ruined" by it).
A similar text is Acts 3:19: “Repent therefore, and turn to God so that your sins may be wiped out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord.”
IOW.....God's love will transform them.
You mean I'll see YOUR point (which is distinct from the truth....in my view)?If you had quoted both passages I cited instead of just one you would see the truth.
I didn't change what you said....I gave a different interpretation than you did (from the original Greek text).Doug Melven said:Instead you chose just one passage changing what I said.
??? I don't know what you mean by this. That's nothing like what I'd posted.Do you really think Jesus was saying these individuals would have a conversation with Jesus?
I don't believe that's supported in the text.....that comes from presumptions imposed on the text. I believe it's more about the standards of citizens of God's kingdom.No, this is a picture of the Great White Throne Judgment where those who have not accepted Christ as Saviour will be punished for there disobedience of not believing.
My point was....it's not as if God suddenly appears where He once wasn't when a person repents (as related to His omnipresence).The key here to getting the refreshing is Repenting and turning to God.
God will not force people to change who do not want to be changed.
And once you die, that is it, there are no more chances to repent.
That's not what Jesus said.No, this is a picture of the Great White Throne Judgment where those who have not accepted Christ as Saviour will be punished for there disobedience of not believing.
Psalm 16:11 is quoted by Peter in Acts 2:31. There the Greek word is hades.Answer me this then, just for the sake of consistency. Why does your Psalm 16 understanding, in your attempt to enlighten me, not line up with Matt 10 then? Is the soul NOT IN HELL in the OT according to your theology, but then it IS IN HELL in the NT according to your theology in Matthew.
Matthew 10:28 And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.
Sure it is.I don't believe that's supported in the text.....that comes from presumptions imposed on the text. I believe it's more about the standards of citizens of God's kingdom.
We're not suggesting that. I have posted several times that "hell" wasn't even a word when the Bible was written (and Hillsage posted about how translations have changed and dialed back the use of "hell" when it obviously didn't belong).You guys really need to get over this idea that because a word means one thing in one place it can only have that meaning everywhere else.
See my previous post. At the end of the Jewish age (He's said to be coming in His glory). And that's my point.....I don't believe we even *have* different [eventual] destinies. He is going to--in my belief--reconcile ALL things to Him (as it's written in Colossians 1:20).Sure it is.
Matthew 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
How many different times do you think Jesus will be sitting on His throne judging people as to what there destiny will be?
Oh... I don't know. Those are new terms for me and I still don't have enough understanding to know.Does the position of that commentary lie in a full or part preterist point of view?
Correct HADES is right. So where did HELL come from? Hades is, always was 'the grave', period. Even today in New England at 'planting' time they say; "Well it's time to HELL the potatoes." Stupid definition, but correct application....dig a hole, throw it in, cover it up.Psalm 16:11 is quoted by Peter in Acts 2:31. There the Greek word is hades.
That's the problem with you guys, Jesus never said HELL, don't you get it? Jesus did say Gehenna, but what was Gehenna? It certainly wasn't the HELL you guys believe in.When Jesus says "fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell" the Greek word is Geenna.
I'd rather look silly than 'look the fool', when the only thing determining whether your side interprets 'a single word' as 'grave' or 'hell' is based solely upon whether or not it's talking about the nominal 'still sins like hell' church OR if it is talking about the majority of God's creation. A creation which you guys think DESERVE eternal torture.You guys really need to get over this idea that because a word means one thing in one place it can only have that meaning everywhere else.
To be honest, sticking to that thinking makes you look a little silly.
How are people who die in their sins "made perfect in love?" The Dante's inferno shtick is a favorite cop-out for the "hell no" crowd. The fact is------> There is no fear in love, but perfect love drives out fear, because fear expects punishment. The person who is afraid has not been made perfect in love.~1st John 4:18
Take a look to see what Matthew had written about "the coming of the Son of Man":Sure it is.
Matthew 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
How many different times do you think Jesus will be sitting on His throne judging people as to what there destiny will be?
This is from the Greek to English Interlinear New Testament, published by World Publishing (notice the word "separated" is not there). That changes the meaning:Begin quote
First the green font face makes reading very difficult.Who is the author of the quote and what are his/her qualifications in Greek? How can this person categorically determine "The sole reason some translators have for injecting" anything into any text? What rule of Greek grammar supports the conclusion of this author? There is a word in the quote which supports the traditional translation. προσωπου/presence. ολεθρον αιωνιον απο προσωπου του κυριου/destruction eternal from [the] presence of the Lord."End quote
This may help you decide (I'm still not clear on the distinction between the two):Does the position of that commentary lie in a full or part preterist point of view?
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