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What's a likely reason for Jesus claiming to return in his generation?

  • The authors didn't correctly record what Jesus said (they are human after all)

  • Jesus was a false prophet

  • Jesus didn't know and therefore gave his "best guess"

  • Poor translation from Greek to English

  • The texts were manipulated later on

  • I don't know

  • Other


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ewq1938

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That's where people make a mistake. The verse prior (27), Jesus explains what the coming entailed. Which was: coming with angels, in Fathers glory, to judge every man.

Question: did angels come down at the transfiguration?
Did Jesus come to judge?


The transfiguration was not the second coming. It was Christ visiting his Kingdom and two important people of that Kingdom.
 
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MasterYourLife

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The transfiguration was not the second coming. It was Christ visiting his Kingdom and two important people of that Kingdom.
"For the Son of Man is going to come in his Father’s glory with his angels, and then he will reward each person according to what they have done."
 
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ewq1938

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"For the Son of Man is going to come in his Father’s glory with his angels, and then he will reward each person according to what they have done."


That's the second coming. The next verse is not.

Mat 16:27 For the Son of man shall come in the glory of his Father with his angels; and then he shall reward every man according to his works.--second coming


Mat 16:28 Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his kingdom. --not the second coming.

Some of the disciples would get to see Jesus come into his Kingdom, that's the transfiguration that happened 6 days later:

Mat 17:1 And after six days Jesus taketh Peter, James, and John his brother, and bringeth them up into an high mountain apart,
Mat 17:2 And was transfigured before them: and his face did shine as the sun, and his raiment was white as the light.
Mat 17:3 And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with him.
Mat 17:4 Then answered Peter, and said unto Jesus, Lord, it is good for us to be here: if thou wilt, let us make here three tabernacles; one for thee, and one for Moses, and one for Elias.
Mat 17:5 While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him.
Mat 17:6 And when the disciples heard it, they fell on their face, and were sore afraid.
Mat 17:7 And Jesus came and touched them, and said, Arise, and be not afraid.
 
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MasterYourLife

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Could you explain please, how "the Son of Man coming in his kingdom", doesn't refer to the second coming, when the verse before leads into the next with, "the Son of Man will come".
 
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ViaCrucis

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There's some confusion that goes on in trying to understand the Olivet Discourse. Namely that when Jesus speaks of the various signs that would be seen, He's not referring to His Parousia, but to the events which surround the destruction of the Temple during the first Jewish-Roman War. Consider the context of the Olivet Discourse in Matthew where the disciples ask Jesus about Him saying that the Temple would be destroyed.

Further, "the Son of Man coming into His kingdom" should probably be better understood as its allusion to Daniel, where there is the vision of the Son of Man being taken up on clouds before the Ancient of Days being given dominion and everlasting kingdom. So rather than having the Parousia in mind, this is probably better understood to be a reference to Jesus' Ascension.

The fathers of the Church, and historic Christian interpretation, has also seen Jesus' references seeing the Son's glory as being, at least in part, fulfilled in the Transfiguration.

So we have the Transfiguration, the Ascension, and the destruction of Jerusalem--all of which happened within the generation to whom Jesus spoke.

The question is then this: is there anything clearly about His Parousia when He speaks of "some will not taste death" or "this generation shall not pass away"? Or can these things be better understood with the above?

As far as some of the things Paul himself writes, it is very possible, even probable, that the Apostles thought Jesus would return within their lifetime, but as the Apostles began dying off, and the Church moved toward planning for the long term, as it were, the shift in language does change. So we have in 2 Peter (probably not written by Peter at all, and in fact written in the early to mid 2nd century) the reassurance that God is not slow in keeping His promises.

-CryptoLutheran
 
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ewq1938

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Could you explain please, how "the Son of Man coming in his kingdom", doesn't refer to the second coming

Because none of the disciples lived to see the second coming. Are you claiming some did see the second coming?
 
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MasterYourLife

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Because none of the disciples lived to see the second coming. Are you claiming some did see the second coming?
When I plainly read the verse, I understand Jesus is saying, "I will return a second time to you, before some of you die".
 
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ewq1938

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When I plainly read the verse, I understand Jesus is saying, "I will return a second time to you, before some of you die".


So do you believe the second coming happened already? Sounds like that is what you are saying but I want to make sure I understand you.
 
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Mark51

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When Jesus ascended into heaven, according to the record, “a cloud caught him up from their vision.” (Acts 1:9) The disciples did not see Jesus riding away on a cloud, but rather, the cloud obscured their vision of him. This helps us to understand Jesus’ words concerning his presence: “They will see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory,” and Revelation’s statement: “He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him.” (Luke 21:27; Matthew 24:30; Revelation 1:7) In past cases, clouds represented invisible presence; but observers could “see” the meaning with their mental “eyes.” In this case the physical occurrences that are visible would cause the one looking to “see” or realize that Christ is invisibly present.—See also Matthew 24; Mark 13; Revelation 14:14.

Just before this comment he had spoken of the prophet Daniel. (Matthew 24:15; Daniel 9:27; 11:31) And from the expression Jesus here used it is evident that he was now referring back to Daniel 7:13, 14, where the vision depicted “with the clouds of the heavens someone like a son of man” gaining access to “the Ancient of Days” and receiving a ‘kingdom that will not be brought to ruin.’ This linked “the sign of the Son of man” with the time when Jesus would be exercising Kingdom power. Jesus applied the expression “Son of man” and the prophecy at Daniel 7:13, 14 to himself.-Matthew 26:63, 64; Mark 14:61, 62.

About 96 C.E., 26 years after the destruction of Jerusalem, John wrote about things that would take place in the future, and he saw in vision Jesus Christ “coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him, and those who pierced him.” (Revelation 1:1, 7) Hence, both this statement about something that was to take place after 96 C.E. and what Christ said about “the sign of the Son of man” referred to Jesus as coming in the clouds and as being seen by all people. It should be noted, however, that while the Greek verb ho·ra′o, “see,” used at Matthew 24:30 and Revelation 1:7, can mean literally to “see an object, behold,” it can also be used metaphorically, of mental sight, to “discern, perceive.”-A Greek-English Lexicon, by H. Liddell and R. Scott, revised by H. Jones, 1968, p. 1245, col. 1.

This is evidently an allusion to the prophetic Psalm 110, Jesus Christ having earlier shown that this psalm applied to him. (Matthew 22:42-45) This psalm, as well as the apostle’s application of it at Hebrews 10:12, 13, reveals that there would be a waiting period for Jesus Christ before his Father would send him forth to “go subduing in the midst of [his] enemies.” It therefore appears that the fulfillment of the prophecy in Daniel comes, not at the time of Jesus’ resurrection and ascension to heaven, but at the time of his being authorized by God to take action against all opposers in vigorous expression of his kingly authority. The ‘coming of the Son of man to the Ancient of Days,’ then, apparently corresponds in time to the situation presented at Revelation 12:5-10, when the symbolic man-child is brought forth and caught up to God’s throne. Then war breaks out in heaven, and the cry goes up: “Now have come to pass the salvation and the power and the kingdom of our God and the authority of his Christ.”
 
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Hawkins

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Jesus is 100% and 100% humans. As God He needs to fully submit to God the Father during His earthly journey. He only knows what God the Father let Him know in a specific time.

As human He's a prophet following the prophet rules. It's common for prophets to prophesy a near event and for God to make use of the same context to prophesy a far end event.

Daniel made a prophecy, possibly related to a scenario at a time spot near him. Jesus extended this long time prophecy and for God to make it a far end prophecy.

Matthew 24:15-16 (NIV2011)
So when you see standing in the holy place ‘the abomination that causes desolation,’ spoken of through the prophet Daniel—let the reader understand—
then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains.

As a result, this prophecy can be a mixture of Daniel's time + Jesus' time + end time, or one or 2 of them individually.
 
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PROPHECYKID

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Matthew 24 has a dual fulfillment. You ask a very good question and you correctly stated that in Jesus' answer he was addressing two questions. Firstly, Jesus said concerning the temple that one stone will not be left upon another, so the disciples asked him when will that happen. Secondly, they asked him what will be the sign of his coming.

Some of what Jesus said was fulfilled in the disciples time, for instance when he spoke about the abomination of desolation. This is in reference to the destruction of Jerusalem which took place in 70AD, in the disciples generation.
 
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