charis kai dunamis,
You are still being trivial.
You think I am saying that God's knowledge is in time and enslaved to our making a decision. That is ridiculous!
God is all powerful but his love is long suffering and he will not wield his power unlawfully because he said he is bound by his law which is immutable.
Time originates with God because he had to be in a world of no time before he created our universe. I think there is more to the definition of no time.
You seem to want to prove that I say man is overriding God and that is not true if you believe that.
Why don't you say what your belief is and your point is clearly instead of trying to get me to play a guessing game if you think I don't follow what you are saying. Start again. Jerry Kelso
Honestly I'm not sure how much clearer I can be here. Either the choices of men are foreordained and decreed by God (Reformed Theology teaches this), and therefore find their primary cause in God (second cause in man), or the choices of men are not foreordained by God and instead originate within man Himself as their primary cause.
My question to you is how God can have any sort of true foreknowledge of something completely ad extra. I am arguing that He can't - His omniscience requires that His free will is inextricably linked with His free knowledge; He knows what He does. And Reformed Theology has recognized this and made clear that God's eternal decree, in which God exhaustively has ordained all things which come to pass, gives reason for His own free knowledge of what is actual. He knows it all because He willed it all. In the opposing scheme, it is not God's will which is causative, but man's will. Therefore, how does God know?
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