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Phinehas2
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Dear MrPirate,
Ok thanks but no thanks. Firstly my citations address the issue of all the law or none, used by gay and lesbian activists. The answer is Jesus fulfils the law.
You have no problem with the idea to love your neighbour but you obviously do with the same sex bit as you have chosen to post your disbelief of that.
Anyway the word shakhabh is to lie down and usually qualified with carnally to denote where it is sexual with a woman Numbers 5:13, Lev 19:20, otherwise it refers to for example copulation or masturbation. In Lev 18:22 and 20:13 it is to lie with a man as with a woman. However the septuagint confirms this You have been mislead by incorrect gay theology, which is widely used by gays and lesbians who are sucked in by it for example http://www.rayofhopechurch.com/sexual1.htm coming from McNeils original work.
Furthemore Paul was an expert in the Jewish law, you arent, and he obviously refers to the septuagint
meta arsenos ou koimethese koiten gynaikos (Lev. 18:22)
koimethe meta arsenos koiten gynaikos (Lev. 20:13)[39]
Otherwise there is no mention of forcing or coercing in Lev 18:22 and Lev 10:13, where did you get this idea from? Which words?
Leviticus has many laws about having carnal relations with of another person the Hebrew word for sexual intercourse or carnal relations is shakhabh. Multiple times we can find prohibitions about having carnal relations with any number of people. (though it is surprising to see who is not included) what we do not find in either Leviticus
18:22 or 20:13 is a prohibition of carnal relations (shakhabh) between two men. In literal translations we do not even find the strange and awkwardly worded though shall not lie is the Hebrew mishkabh, which elsewhere is translate as to lay on the ground next to and not considered to be sinful. Rather in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 we find the Hebrew word shakab. Shakab is used 52 times in the old testament and is always used to a sexual encounter typified by deceit or force, in other words, some type of rape.
Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 says that a man shall not force, or in any way coerce, another man to have sex. In other words, it is an abomination to rape a man. Homosexuality and consensual homosexual intercourse are not abominations and not sins. And a man raping a man is no more a description of homosexuality than a man raping a woman is a description of heterosexuality.
Ok thanks but no thanks. Firstly my citations address the issue of all the law or none, used by gay and lesbian activists. The answer is Jesus fulfils the law.
You have no problem with the idea to love your neighbour but you obviously do with the same sex bit as you have chosen to post your disbelief of that.
Anyway the word shakhabh is to lie down and usually qualified with carnally to denote where it is sexual with a woman Numbers 5:13, Lev 19:20, otherwise it refers to for example copulation or masturbation. In Lev 18:22 and 20:13 it is to lie with a man as with a woman. However the septuagint confirms this You have been mislead by incorrect gay theology, which is widely used by gays and lesbians who are sucked in by it for example http://www.rayofhopechurch.com/sexual1.htm coming from McNeils original work.
Furthemore Paul was an expert in the Jewish law, you arent, and he obviously refers to the septuagint
meta arsenos ou koimethese koiten gynaikos (Lev. 18:22)
koimethe meta arsenos koiten gynaikos (Lev. 20:13)[39]
Otherwise there is no mention of forcing or coercing in Lev 18:22 and Lev 10:13, where did you get this idea from? Which words?
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