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Eusebius and Paul

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oliveplants

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I have Eusebius' Ecclesiastical History, translated by C. F. Cruse.

He says, book 3 chapter 30, "Paul does not demur in a certain epistle to mention his own wife, whom he did not take about with him..."

Does anybody know what he was referencing? WHy did he think Paul was married, and we all think Paul wasn't? Are we missing something, or was he?

Thanks.
 

BalaamsAss51

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Hello Oliveplants.

I've got "Eusebius - The History of the Church" translated by G. A. Williamson, Penquin books. Eusebius is quoting from Clement of Alexandria in Book III of his MIscellanies. "...while Paul himself does not hesitate in one of his epistles to address his yoke-fellow, whom he did not take round with him for fear of hindering his ministry."

The reference is to Philippians 4:3 "Yes, I ask you also, true companion, help these women, who have labored side by side with me in the gospel together with Clement and the rest of my fellow workers, whose names are in the book of life." ESV Then in a footnote to "true companion" there is - "or loyal Syzygus; Greek true yokefellow."

Back to Williamson, his note is that syzygus would naturally mean wife though it could mean comrade.

Then for "whom he did not take round with him" the reference is to 1 Corinthians 9:5. In chapter 9 Paul sets out his rights as a free man and apostle to do certain things that others did. Verse 3 and following - "This is my defense to those who would examine me. Do we not have the right to eat and drink? Do we not have the right to take along a believeing wife, as do the other apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas?" ESV In a footnote "wife" has "Greek, a sister as wife".

So Eusebius quotes Clement who quotes Paul. The Greek sysygus could mean yoke-fellow, wife, true companion, or comrade. The Greek in Corintians could mean wife or "sister as a wife". So where does that all leave us?

Clement obviously thought that the scripture passages proved that Paul was married, and Eusebius agreed. Whether Paul was or not is not definitively answered. The Philipian passage is ambigious, and the Corinthian passage was part of a list of items permitted to Paul which he may or may not have utilized.

The little I've looked at it, I can't say one way or the other. FWIW

Pax
 
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