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This came up in General Apologetics, I'm reposting it here on behalf of one of the friendly neighborhood atheists, who can't post here:
This is a very interesting question. My thinking is, in the purely hypothetical case, the answer would be "yes", but in the *practical* case, there's always some other food available, or un-consecrated wafers, or *something*.
However, it's hard for me to be sure that Christ would object to feeding the starving. And yet, it's obviously a misuse of a sacramental thing, and yet... I'm confused.
O Wise Ones?
I couldn't care less whether or not something a hungry man eats is sacred. If a starving man came into your church and all you could feed him was the Eucharist, would you give it to him?
This is a very interesting question. My thinking is, in the purely hypothetical case, the answer would be "yes", but in the *practical* case, there's always some other food available, or un-consecrated wafers, or *something*.
However, it's hard for me to be sure that Christ would object to feeding the starving. And yet, it's obviously a misuse of a sacramental thing, and yet... I'm confused.
O Wise Ones?