I just finished telling you that we do have "our own will", just as surely as we each have our own life. But I also said that we are not our own. We belong to God. How much more plain can I make it?
God is providing us life and mental capacity moment by moment. Our “life” and “will” are both very limited by God and can be taken from us at any time. Yet, there is nothing to suggest they are interconnected, plants have life without a will, by any definition. Our life is physical, but our “will” is not physical and cannot be found by science and remains a huge mystery and it is somewhat magical, since there is nothing to compare it to. Plants and animals have life but they do not have a will. We can program a computer to think like most animals, but programming a computer for humans thinking seems to be unachievable, it has not been found to be in any place in the brain and it may not be in the brain.
Animals have physical bodies like humans, but the “will” of humans does not seem to be found in animals and thus might be like God’s will, making us in the image of God, which animals are not like.
God has to choose not to control some human will, for some humans to obtain Godly type Love.
You have got to be kidding me! God does not punish animals because they do not sin. God looks into the heart of animals to judge their deeds? What??? Why even go there? It is not a question of whether he can or "cannot see or look into the heart of an animal"! It's really getting hard to take you seriously. Animals —even demon-possessed pigs— are not slaves to sin, dead in their sins, headed to hell and in need of the Savior. And they will not be one-with-God. They are not God's Dwelling Place.
I agree, but you said: “Animals have a will and make decisions according to their preferences, and as a matter of fact, so do humans”, so why does God punish humans and not animals? We agree animals are doing what they have been decreed to do by God, so are not punished, but you say, “some humans are doing what God decreed and are punished”, which is totally inconsistent.
Notice in your first sentence there, that your conclusion is drawn on YOUR reasoning. That is NOT why "we do not blame God for animals doing bad stuff instinctively". We don't blame God for anything, because of who he is. If something we do is wrong, it is because WE did it, even if God intended it. (See Joseph and his brothers — Genesis 50:20)
The reason I do not “blame God” for the wrong anyone does, is because
God did not decree that they sin, which is logical and consistent.
“Bad stuff”, by human standards, does happen, which God can cause, but it is all part of helping willing humans in fulfilling their earthly objective. Lazarus in the “Rich man and Lazarus” story had a tragic life here on earth, but daily, he was providing the very best opportunity for the rich man (who God also Loved) to experience just a little Godly type Love.
Are those my only two choices? Be serious. I don't play "GOTCHA".
Help understand other “alternatives”: I would describe our personal inclinations to be instinctive (“decreed” by God) or our will (autonomous free will) choice we decided on. We are inclined to sin sometimes (this is the way we are made (we have a needed survival instinct, which results in our self-awareness, self-seeking, and selfishness). If we had Godly type Love and the indwelling Holy Spirit to begin with, we would have the power to not sin, but sin serves a purpose in helping us obtain Godly type Love so God allows it.
Does your life change ownership? You need to quit coming up with these bogus philosophical unbiblical narratives/truisms.
I have not thought about this much, so thank you for bringing it up:
Being given a gift of something, means the ownership has changed which seems to ably to Godly type Love, eternal life, the indwelling Holy Spirit, and limited free will, while we are but steward of our own life. The stuff gifted to you like: Love, eternal life, indwelling Holy Spirit and free will can be discarded, sold or walked away from.
If I do good stuff it is because I allowed God to work through me doing that goof stuff, but when I do bad stuff it is on me I own up to those deeds, they are mine.
Of course he can. What is your point?
From what I understand about your doctrine, God controls our “will”, so how/why would God have us do stuff against His decreed will?
That is your construction —not what I say. Why do you change my words?
And no, my position on this is classic Calvinism/Reformed theology. Not at all unconventional.
I am seeing your doctrine as being Hyper Calvinism. A simple definition is this: hyper-Calvinism is the belief that God saves the elect through His sovereign will with little or no use of the methods of bringing about salvation (such as evangelism, preaching, and prayer for the lost). To an unbiblical fault, the hyper-Calvinist
over-emphasizes God’s sovereignty and under-emphasizes man’s responsibility in the work of salvation.
God by his very superiority is already not to blame. But if that's not good enough for you, consider the principle of 'secondary causes'.
I have many many times said that we have a will, yet you continue to talk as though I did not. Give it up!
Which, of the two kinds of God's will, are you referring to? You are conflating the two in order to propose contradiction.
"How can people rebel against God?" Disobedience.
"Why would God decide to do that?" For his own purposes. Does it matter? Who are you, oh man, to question God? Read Romans 9 a few more times. —But if it will help, consider that it was necessary that there be sin in order for Christ to die in our place, and it was necessary for Christ to die in our place so that we can be one with him in Heaven, and it was necessary for there to be sin so that we could learn something about God's justice and purity, that we cannot know by human derivation alone, for the sake of maturity during this life, which is for the sake of becoming the particular members of the Dwelling Place of God that we will be. And each of those things are for the sake of the Glory of God.
I have taught adult classes many times Romans 9:
Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.
The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.
The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!
This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).
Some “Christians” do not seem to understand How Paul uses diatribes and think since he just showed God being “unjust” and saying God is “not unjust” that God has a special God definition of “just”, making God “just” by His standard and appearing totally unjust by human standards. God is not a hypocrite and does not redefine what He told us to be true.
Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?
If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?
This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.
Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”
The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).
How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.
Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.
Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!
The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.
If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.
Rm 9:22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?
This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.
To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.
Just because Paul uses a Potter as being God in his analogy and Jerimiah uses a Potter as being God in his analogy, does not mean the analogies are conveying the exact same analogy. Jerimiah is talking about clay on the potter’s wheel being change while still being malleable clay (which fits the changing of Israel), but Paul is talking about two pots (vessels) so they cannot both be Israel, the clay is the same for both and the clay is not changing the outcome of the pot. The two pots (vessels) are completed and a person is asking “Why did you make me like this”, so it is about “how a person is made (born)” and not a nation.
Since Jerimiah talks only about one pot on the wheel changing and Paul is talking about two kinds of completed pots (vessels), who are the two different pots?
Paul is saying in 2 Tim 2: 21 even after leaving the shop the common vessels can cleanse themselves and thus become instruments for a special purpose. So, who is the common vessel and who is the special vessel in this analogy?
That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.
We agree??? The longer we talk the more I see how little we do agree.
But why would you say God does have the power? It is not a question of power. It is a question of reality. It is a logically-self-contradictory notion. A Fantasy in your own mind. A non-workable narrative.
I thought I rather obviously was being facetious. It's not a trick. Again, it's bogus. Self-contradictory fantasy of human derivation. Not a thing. Insubstantial. Not even speculation. —Don't know how many ways I need to put this, to get it across.
Biblical evidence would help.
Philosophical construction for the purpose of propping up your thesis. Not Biblical. Ignores huge portions of scripture.
Again, what verses in context are you talking about