• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

"End to Sacrifice" Temporary?

ViaCrucis

Confessional Lutheran
Oct 2, 2011
39,540
29,058
Pacific Northwest
✟813,256.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Lutheran
Marital Status
In Relationship
Politics
US-Others
Except that is exactly what scripture says his sacrifice was. THAT is the meaning of the cross not your re-defining of it.

Heb 9:25 Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;
Heb 9:26 For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
Heb 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
Heb 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.

Heb 10:10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
Heb 10:11 And every priest standeth daily ministering and offering oftentimes the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins:
Heb 10:12 But this man, after he had offered one sacrifice for sins for ever, sat down on the right hand of God;
Heb 10:13 From henceforth expecting till his enemies be made his footstool.
Heb 10:14 For by one offering he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

Nothing here in Hebrews suggests that Jesus' death was just a further iteration of ritual sacrifice. The author of Hebrews uses the great wealth of imagery of Israel to communicate the significance of Christ--hence He is described not only as a sacrifice, but also as a great high priest.

If Jesus' death is, in essence, the same sort of thing as the slaughter of sheep and goats then what we have is a ritualistic human sacrifice--something God consistently says He abhors. But Christ's death is not a ritualistic human sacrifice. The sacrificial language used in Scripture is metaphor. Christ-God is not in the same category as sheep and goats.

-CryptoLutheran
 
Upvote 0

ewq1938

Well-Known Member
Christian Forums Staff
Administrator
Site Supporter
Nov 5, 2011
45,335
6,883
✟1,017,991.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Nothing here in Hebrews suggests that Jesus' death was just a further iteration of ritual sacrifice.

Of course there is. The language and context can't be truly denied which is why you could not dispute it other than common denial. He was the slain lamb for that very reason.

Joh_1:29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

Rev_5:6 And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth.

Rev_5:12 Saying with a loud voice, Worthy is the Lamb that was slain to receive power, and riches, and wisdom, and strength, and honour, and glory, and blessing.

Rev_13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.
 
  • Like
Reactions: civilwarbuff
Upvote 0

Moral Orel

Proud Citizen of Moralton
Site Supporter
May 22, 2015
7,379
2,640
✟499,248.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Agnostic
Marital Status
Married
Yet what kind they are is not described.

I was replying to a post from Soyeong who said that when the OT says "sacrifice and offering" it only means one thing. Can you show me a passage in the OT that describes sacrifice and offering but doesn't mean burnt offerings and the like?
 
Upvote 0

ewq1938

Well-Known Member
Christian Forums Staff
Administrator
Site Supporter
Nov 5, 2011
45,335
6,883
✟1,017,991.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
I was replying to a post from Soyeong who said that when the OT says "sacrifice and offering" it only means one thing. Can you show me a passage in the OT that describes sacrifice and offering but doesn't mean burnt offerings and the like?

No, Can you show a new testament passage that limits them to the OT things?
 
  • Like
Reactions: civilwarbuff
Upvote 0

ViaCrucis

Confessional Lutheran
Oct 2, 2011
39,540
29,058
Pacific Northwest
✟813,256.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Lutheran
Marital Status
In Relationship
Politics
US-Others
Of course there is. The language and context can't be truly denied which is why you could not dispute it other than common denial. He was the slain lamb for that very reason.

Joh_1:29 The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.

Rev_5:6 And I beheld, and, lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beasts, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth into all the earth.

Rev_5:12 Saying with a loud voice, Worthy is the Lamb that was slain to receive power, and riches, and wisdom, and strength, and honour, and glory, and blessing.

Rev_13:8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.

And yet Jesus isn't literally a lamb. The Son of God is not a young woolly quadruped taken and put on an altar and cut and made to bleed in order that said blood could be taken and smeared on doorposts.

So, maybe--just maybe--the language of Jesus as the paschal lamb is not literal.

-CryptoLutheran
 
Upvote 0

Soyeong

Well-Known Member
Mar 10, 2015
12,630
4,676
Hudson
✟344,702.00
Country
United States
Faith
Messianic
Marital Status
Single
No, he was to be purified as they were and he was being forced. The vow in Acts 18 is something completely different.

Again, being directed by James to take that action is not the same as being forced by James. Both vows involved cutting their hair, so they were both Nazarite vows.

Paul did not live according to the law. He taught against it as I have already proven.

Acts 21:24 says that he did that to show that he continued to live in accordance with the law. We must obey God rather than man, so you should be careful not to misinterpret something that is against obeying man as being against obeying God. Paul said that our faith does not abolish the law, but that it upholds the law (Romans 3:31).

And that was to fulfill the law and a new law and covenant to replace the old, just as Paul taught.

God has always been holy, righteous, and good, so He has always had such a conduct, and the law is holy, righteous, and good (Romans 7:12) because it is a reflection of His character and it is His instructions for how to have such a conduct. So the way to have such a conduct existed from the beginning and independently of any covenant. The Old Covenant can pass away, but God's character remains the same and the way to act in line with it remains the same, the only thing that changed was the laws in regard to the conduct of the priesthood.

Which is contrary to the rest of the content of your post, especially regarding Paul.

Paul was fully in favor of keeping the law.

The old law is gone, and we are not to obey it. We obey the new law of Christ.

Again, Christ was not in disagreement with the Father about what conduct we should have, but rather the law of Christ just is the way that he taught to obey the law, such as in Matthew 5, or by the example of perfect obedience that he set for us to follow, which we are told to follow (1 Peter 2:21-22).

There are only two laws. The old Sinai law of sin and death and the "law of Christ" which is the law of the Spirit of life!

Romans 7:22-24 For I delight in the law of God, in my inner being, 23 but I see in my members another law waging war against the law of my mind and making me captive to the law of sin that dwells in my members. 24 Wretched man that I am! Who will deliver me from this body of death?

Paul said that he delighted in God's law and contrasted that with the law of sin and death. God did not command the law to bring sin and death, but to bring life abundantly.

1 Corinthians 9:19 For though I be free from all men, yet have I made myself servant unto all, that I might gain the more.
1 Corinthians 9:20 And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;
1 Corinthians 9:21 To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ) that I might gain them that are without law.
1 Corinthians 9:22 To the weak became I as weak, that I might gain the weak: I am made all things to all men, that I might by all means save some.

Your interpretation maligns the character of Paul and turns him into the ultimate liar who felt free to lie to different groups of people about what he was saying to the other groups, free to lie in court, and free to openly admit that he lied and free to encourage others to lie, yet someone no one caught on to him. If he had been lying, then they would have easily been able to produce witnesses to his lies, but they couldn't because he wasn't lying. It would have been unacceptable to him to sin in order to spread the Gospel because that would have undermined the very message he was spreading. Rather, Paul was talking about giving up his rights and not taking a position over other people so that he could meet them where they were at. Paul never stopped identifying as a Jew, so he was not talking about pretending to be a Jew, but about following their customs. Note that in verse 21 he specifically said he was not without God's law, which was in a parallel statement to obeying the law of Christ.

Here again the two are compared.

James 1:25 But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed.

James 2:12 So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.

It is also called "the law of liberty" because it is the opposite of the law of bondage, that same old law of sin and death.

The law of Moses is the law of Christ is the law of liberty. It is sin, which is the transgression of the law, that puts us in bondage, not the law that instructs us to be free from sin.

Romans 7:5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death.
Romans 7:6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.

Paul says Christians are delivered from the law, because the old covenant law is dead.

Paul made it clear the next verse that the law was not sin. If we have been set free from all aspects of the law, then we have been set free to sin all we wanted because sin is lawlessness (1 John 3:4), however it is not the case that we have been set free to sin, but rather that we have been set free from sin. Our salvation is from sin, so our salvation is from lawlessness for the purpose of lawfulness. We have been set free from slavery to sin to become slaves of obedience (Romans 6:16). All OT Scripture, including the law, is God-breathed and is profitable for training in righteousness and equipping us to do every good work (2 Timothy 3:16-17) and we are made new creations in Christ for the purpose of doing good works (Ephesians 2:10).

Note that Paul specified that we were set free from what held us captive. The law held us captive when we transgressed it because the penalty of sin is death, but there is now no condemnation for those who are in Christ, so we have been set free from that so that we could be free to follow Christ, which involves following his example of obedience to the law. And again, like the woman in the example, she was not set free from having a holy, righteous, and good conduct, but was only set free from the penalty for not having such a conduct.

Romans 7:5-6 For when we were living according to our old nature, the passions connected with sins worked through the Torah in our various parts, with the result that we bore fruit for death. 6 But now we have been released from this aspect of the Torah, because we have died to that which had us in its clutches, so that we are serving in the new way provided by the Spirit and not in the old way of outwardly following the letter of the law.

Gill:
are become dead to the law, and that to them, as in Rom_7:6, and can have no more power over them than a law can have over dead persons, or a dead abrogated law can have over living ones. They are represented as "dead to sin", and "dead with Christ", Rom_6:2; and here, "dead to the law", as in Gal_2:19, and consequently cannot be under it; are out of the reach of its power and government, since that only has dominion over a man as long as be lives the law is dead to them; it has no power over them, to threaten and terrify them into obedience to it; nor even rigorously to exact it, or command it in a compulsory way; nor is there any need of all this, since believers delight in it after the inward man, and serve it with their minds freely and willingly; the love of Christ, and not the terrors of the law, constrains them to yield a cheerful obedience to it; it has no power to charge and accuse them, curse or condemn them, or minister death unto them, no, not a corporeal one, as a penal evil, and much less an eternal one. And the way and means by which they become dead to the law, and that to them is,

Indeed, being "dead to the law" does not refer to a status of being free from obeying it, but a status of being free from its power over us. Without any power over us to threaten or condemn us, the law remains simply instructions for how to have a holy, righteous, and good conduct, which is something that we should take inward delight in and serve freely and willingly, and which we are told to do as part of the New Covenant (1 Peter 1:14-16, 1 John 3:10, Ephesians 2:10). We are to have cheerful obedience to the law because of our love for Christ and our desire to follow his example. The law is spiritual (Romans 7:14) and it is those who have a carnal mind who do not submit to God's law (Romans 8:7).

that ye should be married to another; or "that ye should be to another", or "be another's"; that is, that ye should appear to be so in a just and legal way; for they were another's, they were Christ's before by the Father's gift, and were secretly married to him in the everlasting covenant, before he assumed their nature, and in the body of his flesh bore their sins, satisfied law and justice, paid their debts, and so freed them from the power of the law, its curse and condemnation, or any obligation to punishment; all which was done in consequence of his interest in them, and their marriage relation to him; but here respect is had to their open marriage to him in time, the day of their espousals in conversion; to make way for which, the law, their former husband, must be dead , and they dead to that, that so their marriage to Christ might appear lawful and justifiable; who is very fitly described by him,

Paul said in Romans 7:1 that he was speaking to those who knew the law, so he was using an example for the law to illustrate a point, rather than saying everything in the example represented something else. We can't be represented by the woman because we are dying to the law and it is her husband that dies, and we can't be represented by the husband because it is the woman who is free to get married to another. Paul was making the point that the death of her husband doesn't free her to disobey the law, but rather that it frees her from the penalty of disobeying the law, which is the point he is building to in Romans 8:1, and we are set free from that aspect of the law in the same way.
 
Upvote 0

ewq1938

Well-Known Member
Christian Forums Staff
Administrator
Site Supporter
Nov 5, 2011
45,335
6,883
✟1,017,991.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Both vows involved cutting their hair, so they were both Nazarite vows.

That's a circular reasoning fallacy. One vow Paul was in the midst of isn't named but the fact that he was traveling proves it wasn't the Nazarite vow. The second vow was a Nazarite vow but Paul never completed it and he was forced to begin it by a mob who later attacked him when he didn't complete the vow. The main purpose was to see if Paul would complete one of the first covenant, Jewish vows. He didn't.


Acts 21:24 says that he did that to show that he continued to live in accordance with the law.

And verse 23 shows he was ordered to do it. Plus, as I said Paul did NOT complete the vow. He left a day early before the sacrifices were to be done.




Paul was fully in favor of keeping the law.

Not according to Paul who said we are set free from the bondage of the law. Nothing you claim matches what is found in scripture nor what Paul himself said about the law.




Your interpretation maligns the character of Paul and turns him into the ultimate liar who felt free to lie to different groups of people about what he was saying to the other groups, free to lie in court, and free to openly admit that he lied and free to encourage others to lie, yet someone no one caught on to him.


He was being clever, that is all. He didn't lie.


Note that in verse 21 he specifically said he was not without God's law, which was in a parallel statement to obeying the law of Christ.

Yes, the new law of God not the old one.



The law of Moses is the law of Christ is the law of liberty.

No, those are the two different laws. You don't understand the difference. You should study Christian history which explains what actually took place and the difference between the old law of Moses and the new law of Christ.




Indeed, being "dead to the law" does not refer to a status of being free from obeying it, but a status of being free from its power over us.

The law and covenant died and decayed and is gone according to Paul. Beings et free from it DOES MEAN we don't obey it. We obey the new law only.
 
Upvote 0

Soyeong

Well-Known Member
Mar 10, 2015
12,630
4,676
Hudson
✟344,702.00
Country
United States
Faith
Messianic
Marital Status
Single
That's a circular reasoning fallacy. One vow Paul was in the midst of isn't named but the fact that he was traveling proves it wasn't the Nazarite vow. The second vow was a Nazarite vow but Paul never completed it and he was forced to begin it by a mob who later attacked him when he didn't complete the vow. The main purpose was to see if Paul would complete one of the first covenant, Jewish vows. He didn't.

Circular reasoning is when the only reason to accept the truth of a premise is if you already believe the conclusion, which is not something I've done. The Nazarite vow is the only vow in the Bible that involves cutting your hair, Paul's vow in Acts 18:18 involved cutting his hair, therefore it was a Nazarite vow. The Nazarite vow does not prohibit travelling. Again, Paul took no vow Acts 21, he purified himself and paid the expenses of others who had taken a Nazarite vow, but he was arrested at the temple before his days of purification were completed. It says nothing about the mob forcing him to begin a Nazarite vow or attacking him for not complete a vow.

And verse 23 shows he was ordered to do it. Plus, as I said Paul did NOT complete the vow. He left a day early before the sacrifices were to be done.

Acts 21:23 doesn't say that he was forced to live in obedience to the law, but that James instructed him how to show that the rumor was false that that he continued to live in obedience. It does not say anything about be forced to take a vow or about him not completing a vow. He was arrested, not by choice, before his days of purification were completed and prevented from being with the others who had taken the vow.

Acts 6:13 and they set up false witnesses who said, “This man never ceases to speak words against this holy place and the law,

This verse directly says that Stephen was falsely accused of teaching against the law and the same goes for the false rumors about Paul.

Not according to Paul who said we are set free from the bondage of the law. Nothing you claim matches what is found in scripture nor what Paul himself said about the law.

Paul was fully in favor of not sinning and sin is the transgression of the law, so he was fully in favor of not transgressing the law. It is sin that puts us in bondage, not God's righteous instructions for how to avoid sin. Paul said that our faith upholds the law (Romans 3:31). Christ kept the law perfectly and taught to obey the law and we are told to follow his example and walk as he walked.

2 Peter 3:15-17 And count the patience of our Lord as salvation, just as our beloved brother Paul also wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, 16 as he does in all his letters when he speaks in them of these matters. There are some things in them that are hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other Scriptures. 17 You therefore, beloved, knowing this beforehand, take care that you are not carried away with the error of lawless people and lose your own stability.

This says that Paul is difficult to understand, but that those who are ignorant and unstable twist his words to their own destruction and fall into the error of lawlessness. So if you think Paul was against keeping the law, then you are making this same error.

He was being clever, that is all. He didn't lie.

In Acts 17:11, the Bereans checked out everything Paul said against Scriptures, to verify that what he said was true, so if you think Paul was teaching against obeying God's law, then you understand Paul differently than the people who walked and talked with him. This clearly shows that he was not teaching Jews against obeying the law. If Paul had been speaking against obeying God's law, then he would have been in violation of Deuteronomy 13, so according God's instructions all of the Jews would have correctly known to dismiss what he said as false. In Acts 24:14, Paul said that believed everything laid down by the Law and written in the Prophets and in Acts 25:8 he said that he had committed no offense against the law, so this is not being clever, you would have him committing perjury. If Paul hadn't been living in obedience to the law, then you would also have James acting falsely to deceive the Jews about what Paul was doing.

Yes, the new law of God not the old one.

God's holy, righteous, and good character does not change and the way to act in line with His character did not change between covenants. The law of God always refers to the law of Moses in the Bible and to say there are different sets of laws it is a complete fabrication and misunderstanding of God's character. You're just arbitrarily picking and choosing which law is being talked about in order to maintain your erroneous theology instead letting the text inform your theology.

No, those are the two different laws. You don't understand the difference. You should study Christian history which explains what actually took place and the difference between the old law of Moses and the new law of Christ.

History shows that there was no one in leadership who was teaching against obeying God's law, so for at least the first roughly 7-15 years after Christ's ascension up until the inclusion of Gentiles in Acts 10, all Christians were Torah observant Jews. And again, there was no disagreement between the Father and the Son about what conduct we should have and Jesus did not teach anything other than what the Father had commanded.

The law and covenant died and decayed and is gone according to Paul. Beings et free from it DOES MEAN we don't obey it. We obey the new law only.

The Old Covenant passed away, but the way to act in line with God's holy, righteous, and good character remained the same. God's law is his instructions for how to have a holy, righteous, and good conduct, and as part of the New Covenant we are also told to have a holy, righteous, and good conduct. There is no motivation that God would have to do away with His law and there should be no motivation for us to what to be separated from God's holy, righteous, and good instructions. Our attitude should be like David and Paul, who delighted in God's law (Psalms 1:1-2, Romans 7:22) because God's law is the ancient and good way that gives rest for our souls (Jeremiah 6:16-19, Matthew 11:28-30).

Scriptures do not say anything about a new law, but rather there are numerous instances where it talks about God's law being eternal and God does nothing that he has not first revealed in the prophets (Amos 3:7).
 
Upvote 0

ewq1938

Well-Known Member
Christian Forums Staff
Administrator
Site Supporter
Nov 5, 2011
45,335
6,883
✟1,017,991.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Again, Paul took no vow Acts 21, he purified himself and paid the expenses of others who had taken a Nazarite vow, but he was arrested at the temple before his days of purification were completed.

He didn't pay for anything, nor did he even stay until the time of the sacrifices. He was only arrested when the Romans saw the mob wanted to kill him.


It says nothing about the mob forcing him to begin a Nazarite vow or attacking him for not complete a vow.

It is clear he was ordered to do this:

Act 21:23 Do therefore this that we say to thee: We have four men which have a vow on them;

The reason he is being forced is to prove that he was still a practicing Jew under the law:

Act 21:24 Them take, and purify thyself with them, and be at charges with them, that they may shave their heads: and all may know that those things, whereof they were informed concerning thee, are nothing; but that thou thyself also walkest orderly, and keepest the law.

But he did not do this willingly and nor did he complete the 7th and 8th day of this vow.

He was arrested, not by choice, before his days of purification were completed and prevented from being with the others who had taken the vow.

The mob was going to kill Paul, the Roman's stopped that by arresting Paul, who was a Roman citizen.


Acts 6:13 and they set up false witnesses who said, “This man never ceases to speak words against this holy place and the law,

This verse directly says that Stephen was falsely accused of teaching against the law and the same goes for the false rumors about Paul.

This is a red herring. It is unrelated to Paul. Paul did and does teach against the old law in his letters and these Jews knew it.



So if you think Paul was against keeping the law, then you are making this same error.

No, the error is made by you not I.
 
Upvote 0

Moral Orel

Proud Citizen of Moralton
Site Supporter
May 22, 2015
7,379
2,640
✟499,248.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Agnostic
Marital Status
Married
No, Can you show a new testament passage that limits them to the OT things?

Why would I need to? We're trying to determine what Daniel meant when he made his prophecy. And since Daniel wasn't around for the NT, I fail to see how that has any relevance on what Daniel had to say. I'm failing to see any reason to think that Daniel meant anything other than the sacrifices and offerings that have been done away with. Do you have any evidence that shows we should speculate about what David meant?
 
Upvote 0

ewq1938

Well-Known Member
Christian Forums Staff
Administrator
Site Supporter
Nov 5, 2011
45,335
6,883
✟1,017,991.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Why would I need to? We're trying to determine what Daniel meant when he made his prophecy. And since Daniel wasn't around for the NT, I fail to see how that has any relevance on what Daniel had to say. I'm failing to see any reason to think that Daniel meant anything other than the sacrifices and offerings that have been done away with.

He was a prophet that spoke of future things.


Do you have any evidence that shows we should speculate about what David meant?

Yes, God spoke though him and God knew that the OT sacrifices and offerings would not be taking place during the tribulation. Therefore, the S&O mentioned are not what you are assuming they are.
 
Upvote 0

Moral Orel

Proud Citizen of Moralton
Site Supporter
May 22, 2015
7,379
2,640
✟499,248.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Agnostic
Marital Status
Married
Yes, God spoke though him and God knew that the OT sacrifices and offerings would not be taking place during the tribulation. Therefore, the S&O mentioned are not what you are assuming they are.

Your evidence is that if it was what I think it was it creates a conflict with what you think it was, therefore I'm wrong. It could just be that the prophecy in question wasn't about Jesus and the things that came after, like ViaCrucis has said, that would eliminate the conflict too. Or it could be that people misinterpreted Jesus' death and resurrection and shouldn't have done away with Mosaic law. That would eliminate the conflict as well.
 
Upvote 0

ewq1938

Well-Known Member
Christian Forums Staff
Administrator
Site Supporter
Nov 5, 2011
45,335
6,883
✟1,017,991.00
Country
United States
Gender
Male
Faith
Christian
Marital Status
Single
Your evidence is that if it was what I think it was it creates a conflict with what you think it was, therefore I'm wrong. It could just be that the prophecy in question wasn't about Jesus and the things that came after, like ViaCrucis has said, that would eliminate the conflict too. Or it could be that people misinterpreted Jesus' death and resurrection and shouldn't have done away with Mosaic law. That would eliminate the conflict as well.

Christ's death did away with the first law/covenant and brought a new to be. That is scriptural fact.
 
Upvote 0