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Mad A. Hatter

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Upon researching the bible in Hebrew, I came upon an interesting fact.
In the part where the bible says "and GOD said let there be light",...etc the word GOD is in fact, Elohim, which is PLURAL for "God."

Another fun, interesting biblical passage is Genesis 6:4, which in the NIV bible reads, " The Nephlim were on the earth in those days - and also afterward - when the sons of God went to the daughters of men and had children by them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown." Notice here, "God" is still "Elohim" in the original, Hebrew, bible.
 

Jon_

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Mad A. Hatter said:
Upon researching the bible in Hebrew, I came upon an interesting fact. In the part where the bible says "and GOD said let there be light",...etc the word GOD is in fact, Elohim, which is PLURAL for "God."
This isn't entirely correct. The word Elohim was used to refer to gods (lower case "g"), but when used with respect to God (captial "G"), it is singular (plural intensive, singular meaning; cf. Brown, Driver & Briggs). Note the entries from Strong, and Brown, Driver, and Briggs:

Strong's said:
H430

אלהים

'ĕlôhîym

el-o-heem'

Plural of H433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: - angels, X exceeding, God (gods) (-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.

Brown-Driver-Briggs said:
H430

אלהים

'ĕlôhîym

BDB Definition:

1) (plural)

1a) rulers, judges

1b) divine ones

1c) angels

1d) gods

2) (plural intensive - singular meaning)

2a) god, goddess

2b) godlike one

2c) works or special possessions of God

2d) the (true) God

2e) God

Part of Speech: noun masculine plural

A Related Word by BDB/Strong’s Number: plural of H433

Same Word by TWOT Number: 93c

The word is used in the Hebrew to refer both to God and to gods. For instance, reference Genesis 3:5 (KJV):
For God430 doth know3045 [8802] that in the day3117 ye eat398 [8800] thereof, then your eyes5869 shall be opened6491 [8738], and ye shall be as gods430, knowing3045 [8802] good2896 and evil7451.
"God" (Strong's number 430) at the beginning of this verse is Elohim, but refers to the Almighty. "gods" (also 430) near the end of the verse is also Elohim, but does not refer to the Almighty. In the KJV, Elohim is used 2366 times in reference to the Almighty, compared to 239 times in reference to other things.

Even if we were to grant that the original meaning of Elohim as used by the Hebrew authors was plural (which it was not), it would still be sensible as God is one in three persons (the Trinity).

Soli Deo Gloria

Jon
 
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""

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In the part where the bible says "and GOD said let there be light",...etc the word GOD is in fact, Elohim, which is PLURAL for "God."


Yes, of course, because God has been the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit forever. The Holy Trinity. It does not mean many gods, all of whom retain their own identity and are not a part of the one. (ie: hindu gods, etc).
 
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peepnklown

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Adiya said:
Yes, of course, because God has been the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit forever. The Holy Trinity. It does not mean many gods, all of whom retain their own identity and are not a part of the one. (ie: hindu gods, etc).
You are incorrect. The Tanakh states clearly that God is one, not the Father, not the Son, and not the Holy Spirit.

Elohim is used when emphasizing God’s might, his creative power, and his attributes of justice and rulership.

http://www.jewfaq.org/name.htm
 
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BarbB

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peepnklown said:
You are incorrect. The Tanakh states clearly that God is one, not the Father, not the Son, and not the Holy Spirit.

Elohim is used when emphasizing God’s might, his creative power, and his attributes of justice and rulership.

http://www.jewfaq.org/name.htm

Actually this is why the Christian can see Elohim as God the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit and the Jew can see God as One as in "the Lord our God, the Lord is One".
 
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sanaa

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Adiya said:
Yes, of course, because God has been the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit forever. The Holy Trinity. It does not mean many gods, all of whom retain their own identity and are not a part of the one. (ie: hindu gods, etc).

huh ur incorrect about hindu gods as well. hindu gods- One God manifesting in different forms or different aspects of one God
 
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""

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You are incorrect. The Tanakh states clearly that God is one, not the Father, not the Son, and not the Holy Spirit.

WRONG.


The Plural Noun Elohim

The most often used word for "God" is the term Elohim. It is used of the true God (Genesis 1:1) and of false "gods" (Exodus 20:3). When used of the true God it is translated in the singular. When used of false "gods" it is translated in the plural. The fact that a plural noun is used of the one true God opens the door to the concept of complex, indivisible unity in the Godhead. This fact is not a proof of complex, indivisible unity because there is a usage of plural nouns in Hebrew known as the "plural of majesty," but it is consistent with and opens the door to the idea.

Plural Verbs Used With Elohim
Normally, when Elohim is used in reference to the One True God the verb modifying the noun is singular. This is contrary to normal Hebrew grammatical rules, which state that the verb should agree with the noun in gender and number. Normally, we would expect a plural verb to be used with the plural noun Elohim. When using Elohim of false "gods" this is what we find. Most of the time when we encounter the plural noun Elohim it is modified by a singular verb, which shows that there is only one true God. However, there are exceptions. These exceptions keep the door open for a discussion of complex, indivisible unity in the Godhead. For example Genesis 20:13, 35:7; 2 Sam 7:23; Psalm 58:11. Of those let me choose one example to state what I mean.

2 Samuel 7:23 And who is like Your people Israel, a unique nation on earth, whom God went and redeemed as His people, winning renown for Himself and doing great and marvelous deeds for them [and] for Your land—[driving out] nations and their gods before Your people, whom You redeemed for Yourself from Egypt.

The noun/verb sequence that I am focusing in on is in red—God went. The literal Hebrew is "they went, Gods did." We are talking of the One True God here and He is referred to in plural terms—plural noun and plural verb agreement. The door is open to considering the concept of complex, indivisible unity in the Godhead.

The Noun Elohim Applied to Two Indivisible Persons
The plural noun Elohim is also seen to include two different personalities in the same passage. There is one example.

Hosea 1:7 "But I will accept the House of Judah. And I will give them victory through the Lord their God; I will not give them victory with bow and sword and battle, by horses and riders."

In verses 4-6 God is speaking. He is still speaking in verse 7. In this passage, the speaker is Elohim who says He will extend compassion and deliverance by the instrumentality of the LORD their Elohim. Elohim #1 will deliver Israel by means of Elohim #2.

Footnotes
Jewish Publication Society. (1997, c1985). Tanakh: The Holy Scriptures : A new translation of the Holy Scriptures according to the traditional Hebrew text. Title facing t.p.: Torah, Nevi'im, Kethuvim = Torah, Nevi'im, Ketuvim. (2 Sa 7:23). Philadelphia: Jewish Publication Society.

Jewish Publication Society. (1997, c1985). Tanakh: The Holy Scriptures : A new translation of the Holy Scriptures according to the traditional Hebrew text. Title facing t.p.: Torah, Nevi'im, Kethuvim = Torah, Nevi'im, Ketuvim. (Ho 1:7). Philadelphia: Jewish Publication Society.

http://www.torahbytes.org/sechel/elohim.htm
 
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ChristianCenturion

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peepnklown said:
You are incorrect. The Tanakh states clearly that God is one, not the Father, not the Son, and not the Holy Spirit.

Elohim is used when emphasizing God’s might, his creative power, and his attributes of justice and rulership.

http://www.jewfaq.org/name.htm

:) You're going to have to do better than that.
The word is still in the plural even by your referenced admission:

Excerpt:
The first Name used for God in scripture is Elohim. In form, the word is a masculine plural of a word that looks feminine in the singular (Eloha). The same word (or, according to Rambam, a homonym of it) is used to refer to princes, judges, other gods, and other powerful beings. This Name is used in scripture when emphasizing God's might, His creative power, and his attributes of justice and rulership. Variations on this name include El, Eloha, Elohai (my God) and Elohaynu (our God).

Also, your reference may be correct in much of what it states, but you place more authority in the proposed than even they attempt.
Excerpt:

About the Author
This site is created, written and maintained by Tracey Rich. I do not claim to be a rabbi or an expert on Judaism; I'm just a traditional, observant Jew who has put in a lot of research.
http://www.jewfaq.org/index.htm

So, I'm seeing your claim of "incorrect" is a bit lacking.
That and this was a pretty good rebuttal.
 
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HouseApe

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Any understanding of the usage of Elohim, at this point, is purely by historical precedent. Christians view Elohim through their belief system and Jews through theirs. Nobody really knows what it meant to Jews circa 1200 BCE.

I tend to believe Jews were henotheistic at that early date.
 
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charityagape

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Main Entry: heno·the·ism
Pronunciation: 'he-n&-(")thE-"i-z&m
Function: noun
Etymology: German Henotheismus, from Greek hen-, heis one + theos god -- more at [size=-1]SAME[/size]
: the worship of one god without denying the existence of other gods
- heno·the·ist /-"thE-ist/ noun
- heno·the·is·tic /"he-n&-thE-'is-tik/ adjective



Really, how do you come to that conclusion?
 
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HouseApe

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Archaeologists have been unable to find any difference between early Jewish culture and early Canaanite culture, leading to the conclusion that Jews at least started as a Canaanite tribe. Early Canaanites were thought to be henotheistic, so why wouldn't Jews be? The Canaanite creator god was named "El", same as the Jewish god in much of the Torah. The fact that Jews often fell easily into worshipping other gods, particularly Baal the son of El. Why would they do that so easily if they only thought it was possible for only one God to exist? In fact, Elohim is plural, meaning multiple gods. Jews & Christians today must assume that really means one god, but why should it? Occam's Razor would say if it is plural it is plural. Deuteronomy 32:8, IIRC, originally said the land was apportioned to the sons of God (not Israel). A very henotheistic statement.

So I tend to believe that Jews started as a Canaanite tribe believing in the existence of multiple Gods. But, being henotheistic, believed that only one of those Gods, YHWH, should be worshipped by them. I suspect that they didn't really become true monotheists until after running into Persian Zoroastrianism under Cyrus the Great.
 
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Druweid

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Jon_ said:
Even if we were to grant that the original meaning of Elohim as used by the Hebrew authors was plural (which it was not), it would still be sensible as God is one in three persons (the Trinity).

Since the topic involves singular v. plural, I'd like to throw one more in to the mix: Gen 1:26 "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness..."

"Us" and "Our" rather than Me or My? I don't know the original Hebrew context, but this does present an additional interesting point.

Personally, I don't think it proves or disproves anything, I just find it interesting. I'm sure the author had a reason for writing it this way, I'm just curious at the possible reasons.

Regards,
Druweid
 
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