2) Scripture is the written word of God, NOT the Word of God.
therefore
This is where you're making the mistake. It's complicated and most Christians never arrive to the understanding. Most Christians say, "The Bible is the infallible word of God!" ... I go with this group, but technically they are false. But to get into the discussion on why exactly this is not true, is too long to get into in most instances so I nod my head and go along with it.
"The Bible is not God's word... The Word is Jesus." ... this is also totally false.
With any writing, you have many parts to it. Is Group 1 saying, that none of those parts are not flawed? They themselves, you will find them teaching on the errors to correct understanding, so even the camp that says it's God's infallible word is teaching how this or that translation was wrong, or the word was passed down wrong or what have you.
Errors I know about in the NT:
- KJV added "men" to John 12:32, many subsequent translations included then "men" but the original language never said that, that's why the KJV author put "men" in italics. The context of that verse is dealing with sin. Jesus draws all sin unto himself. If he drew all men unto himself the whole world would be saved presently, it didn't happen, and it doesn't happen. Some argue, "every knee will one day bow" and that's what it's referring to. But why defend something the KJV added arbitrarily? The context is sin, it's simple.
- "Women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the law says." - 1 Corinthians 14:34 ... various proofs have been done and explained rigorously according to hermetical standards. This verse is not an error, really, but it is Paul quoting from the original letter written to him as his epistles outlines he was responding. When read in the correct context that this is a quote, it makes perfect sense. But the Bibles we have are all missing the quotes... this is an error.
- NT Bible was written in Aramaic, not Koine Greek... meaning our best original copies, have already been translated out of Aramaic into Greek
- Matthew 19:24 - In Aramaic, Camel = Rope ...
http://www.biblicalhebrew.com/nt/camelneedle.htm
The verse is working off of a Jewish idiom of that era where you thread a rope through the eye of a needle. Has nothing to do with camels.
.................
How then, is the Bible God's word (THE WORD)?
First, we have to understand how we can rely on the Bible. If overt language fails in some instances, we cannot believe in the word of God in overt language... because even if you wanted to believe the overt language was 100% the word of God, you have the huge problem that you're already reading a translation from that original language if you read English.
So how is it the Word?
It's God's word in meaning, not overt language. Almost always, the overt language is correct if given to full understanding, but that understanding need not rely on specific sentences of overt language.
In information systems of the 20th and 21st century, we implement error correcting mechanisms into "scripture" (memory in computers). The main mechanism is:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Checksum These same mechanisms were implemented and discussed in the Bible:
This will be my third visit to you. "Every matter must be established by the testimony of two or three witnesses." - 2 Corinthians 13:1
Which was Paul quoting Deuteronomy 17:6 which is the OT Law and applying it to the NT church. Furthermore, we see Deut 17:6 violated at the trial of Jesus Christ, where his witnesses could not agree on a testimony to condemn him. Mark 14:56
As we see this principle played out in the Bible, which is a teaching about using multiple data points to verify something as true, we see that the teaching itself was verified using this method of multiple data points (witnesses).
Therefore, we do not have to question the teaching, because it is God's word. And likewise, we apply this teaching to all of God's word, and those parts where it fails this test, we cannot substantiate it as the word of God.
The Word doesn't contradict itself because the word believes in true vs. false, good vs. evil. When Jesus said he is truth, Jesus was making a statement about truth vs. deception, that both exist, and he is truth.
If Jesus told the truth, then when his aspect of truth, the statement in 2 Corinthians 13:1 is believed to be a valid and true statement, sourced out of Christ himself, we understand then that anything which contradicts this truth is not God's word, even should we find it in scripture.
The Bible even teaches that parts of scripture are not God's word in the sense they are not of the substance of truth, but elaborate on a falsehood to reveal truth.
Jesus is truth, Jesus is the word, but scripture contains parts that are not truth and yet elaborate on truth.
You asked, 'Who is this that obscures my plans without knowledge?'
Surely I spoke of things I did not understand, things too wonderful for me to know. - Job 42:3
Are Job's statements parts and elements of God's word, the same word who is Jesus Christ? No. They can't be. Job himself, and God himself excluded some of those statements from being truth incarnate.
Yet the Bible is God's word, Jesus Christ, if we reference the underlying understanding available in God's word the Bible. If you go for the literal overt meaning, available in a given sentence, then you are deceived and looking at the wrong contextual level for the word of God.
Then to summarize the point, the Bible is God's word on the level of correct contextual understanding. Overt language? No. Jesus is not comprised of false statements (like we see in Job), Jesus is comprised of the underlying logos and its meaning, which scripture itself reveals, and this is the whole reason scripture laid claim to being God's word in the first place.
Not that I'm minimizing overt language, it steers you right in many instances... but the overt language was always meant to be filtered through the understanding which the author (God) was providing.