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Doesn't this bother you?

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woobadooba

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I started this thread because I want to examine certain things that Paul had said about women in the church:

"women should be silent in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be subordinate, as the law also says."

Now some would interpret "speak" as 'preach' or 'teach', but the idea that they are to "be silent" pretty much tells us that this goes beyond the act of preaching and teaching. It tells us that they were not allowed to voice their opinion or contribute any thoughts to what was being taught in the church by men at that time.

For example, to relate this rule to Sabbath school, women would not be allowed to teach Sabbath school, or contribute their thoughts to it.

Moreover, they wouldn't even be allowed to question what's being taught by the instructor. Hence, they are not allowed to voice their thoughts, or ask questions; instead, they must be silent. For, it is evident that Paul was not limiting this idea to preaching and teaching, but women must remain silent in general: "If there is anything they desire to know, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church."

A woman who is preaching or teaching is not disclosing herself as one who has a "desire to know"; rather, she is one who is speaking with a desire to inculcate what she knows.

With that said, Paul, in other words, had said that a woman shouldn't even ask questions in church, but should just accept what's being said, and then when she goes home she ought to ask her husband to explain it to her. For, "it is shameful for a woman to speak in church", or perhaps it would be better put, "It is shameful for a woman to question church authority."

Notice now how the verb 'speak' takes on more meaning than just teaching or preaching. It even goes so far as to denote the idea that questions aren't even to be asked by women in church! In other words, to question a man in church is to challenge the authority that he holds within the church, as well as to threaten the authority that he has over a woman. This was unlawful.

Interestingly, the other implication here is that a woman ought to accept whatever her husband tells her on the matter without question, since he is the authority over her. So not only does she not have a voice in the church, but she doesn't have a voice in the home either on such matters!

Now if we were to follow this rule today a woman would have no place to speak in the church except to women (their equals). Moreover, no woman would have a authority over a child that has reached the age of 13, since according to Jewish custom that is when a boy becomes a man. And Paul does not permit a woman to exercise such authority over a man: "I permit no woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she is to keep silent." (1Ti 2:12 NRSV)

Now I am willing to take the risk that others might look down on me for questioning these things, and assume me to be one who is rejecting the word of God as a result of this, but I don't agree that what Paul is saying here is to be taken as an absolute law. And I think I have good reason to disagree.

People try to say that this wasn't a cultural thing, and thus imply that it is an absolute rule, but I have to disagree with this.

Now here's the BIG question for those who oppose women's ordination: If you are going to use Paul to make the claim that this is wrong, then you need to take everything that he says into account, and agree that women should remain silent in church, so much that they shouldn't even ask questions. With that said, why do you have a problem with women's ordination, and yet show yourself to be passive about these other things that Paul doesn't permit women to do in church?

 

A Brother In Christ

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1 tim 2:14 for adam was not deceived, but the woman being decieved was in the trangression.

woman was tricked man sinned afraid to lose wife

Man is over the house spiritually...
Yet the wife is in charge of every day living of the household...

women can speak to there husbands... equallity
women can teach children or other women
 
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DInsight

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Grace and peace to all!

Paul was a very knowledgable man and his words were often loaded to capture revelations given him by God.

Even Apostle Peter said that his (Paul's) teachings are at times not easy to be understood (I paraphrase.)

When considering Paul's position about women remaining silent in the church, there are key words to consider and have clear understanding of, such as they are used also in other scriptures by Paul.

Women
This refers to married women with their husbands (presumably also in the church). Virgins, on the other hand, are unmarried women.



Here is the difference between a married woman and a virgin 1Cr 7:34:
There is difference [also] between a wife and a virgin. The unmarried woman careth for the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and in spirit: but she that is married careth for the things of the world, how she may please [her] husband.
Therefore, virgins (unmarried women), in my opinion, who are sold unto the gospel and completely focused without distraction on our Lord Jesus Christ can speak, teach or preach in the church. And they do speak!

We read about prophetesses and female church leaders in scripture. Paul acknowledged some of them. I then wonder what a prophetesses does if not speak.

But authority given a man over his wife (both are one in the flesh) should be respected, even as the authority of Christ over a man must be respected.

Where there is Christ and a man in the church, who should speak? Christ or man?? Christ!

So, I see Paul's writting in this case as seeking to establish a categorical will of God, which is submission. If Paul were to permit otherwise - that is, a wife having authority over the husband, he'll be turning that will of God on its head. Paul fears God more than men or women!
 
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lilymarie

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Well, The Holy Spirit has been doing a mighty work through me, a female vessel. Read my latest blog and tell me in a private message what you think!

And, this he taught to a Gentile Christian female believer! (see my blog)

************************************

And remember this verse...

"There is neither Jew nor Gentile, male nor female, bond nor free... for ye are all ONE in Christ Jesus".

He loves us all the same.

However, I don't know too many men who are allowed to speak in the church building either... this is for the purpose of orderly worship. No one should speak "in church" except when the leader invites us in song, praise and prayer.

And then the ones who are invited to speak, need to do so in an orderly fashion, otherwise church would be like a party of just people talking to each other, and that would be non-productive in the church building and would cause disorderly worship. :tutu:
 
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TrueMyth

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Yes, those verses do bother me. And you're right, one's answer to this will cut to the point of their view of Scripture and its inspiration. So, at the risk of joining you in the boiling pot, let me offer my opinion and its rational support.

I reject absolutely the idea that the Bible is inerrant in every way. There are quite clearly historical and/or scientific errors in its record. Even apart from this, we must ask about the human writers through whom God worked. It seems the only way for God to ensure that absolutely every word was precisely what He wanted would be for Him to forcibly move the quill as He desired. Thus, we can admit of human error; or, to be more precise, human bias. We see cursing Psalms expressing decidedly un-loving attitudes (39, 69, 109); we see God making bargains with the devil (the Book of Job); we even see Jesus Himself expressing historical ignorance (Matt. 16:28, Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27). I reject utterly the idea that the Bible is absolutely consistent and completely without error; I also reject utterly the idea that this makes it worthless or of low worth.

We can easily see Paul's biases, at least on a superficial glance: he wears them on his sleeve. He apparently believes that marriage is merely a substitute for lust; he apparently believes that women should cover their heads and shut up in church; and he apparently believes that women are to blame for this whole sin mess and that they are cleansed by the pain of childbirth. It is interesting: in any piece of literature except Scripture, we would analyze him and say that he probably had some serious issues with women, most likely stemming from an unresolved Oedipal complex or some abuse in childhood. I think we ought not ignore these passages as uncomfortable; no Scripture should be given that treatment. Instead, we should explore what that meant to the original writer and the original audience, and see what we can draw from it.

As I have already said, it is clear where Paul's biases seem to lie. No other Biblical author speaks out so frequently or so radically against women's actions. But let us see what else Paul says about women:

1) He makes no distinctions between men and women in light of Christ (Gal. 3:28)
2) He speaks approvingly of women praying and proclaiming God's message in public worship (1 Cor. 11:5)
3) He refers to several women whom he instituted and/or approved for leadership over a church (Rom. 16)
4) He admonishes husbands to love their wives in a sacrificial way, which was unheard of in that time period (Eph. 5:25, 28; Col. 3:19)

Partially in light of these inconsistencies, and partially due to extant manuscripts, many scholars believe that the 1 Cor. 14 admonition is a later addition, especially in light of Paul's praise of women speaking out in church merely three chapters earlier. Thus, there is some doubt that this is actually Paul talking and not some later mysogynistic scribe. If it is Paul, however, while it seems that this is a clear case of his bias against women, is it necessary that we view it that way?

Let's look now at the intended audience. Paul is writing a letter to the Corinthians, a notoriously rowdy and randy bunch who frequently bent the rules of good conduct to suit their patterns of behavior. More than once, Paul had to lay down the law with them. Paul speaks in his other writings of "spiritual milk" and "solid food", and how certain Christians are deserving of each. He also speaks about not causing a brother to stumble, and abstaining from practices which are acceptable in God's eyes because indulging in them might lead a weaker brother to sin. Is it so unreasonable, given the intended audience, that Paul is giving spiritual milk teachings to weak Christians, not claiming that the thing is in and of itself bad, but that it is best to avoid it altogether to avoid any appearance of impropriety and to keep others strong in their walk? It is entirely possible that (assuming the passage is truly Pauline) he got a little carried away in his rhetoric, given his frustration with this church.

Either Paul allowed women to speak in church, or he didn't. 1 Cor. 11:2 indicates that he did; 1 Cor. 14:33 indicates he didn't. Which are we to believe is the better universal mandate? The former has a much better argument for it, since it has reason, justice, and spiritual solid food on its side.
 
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TrueMyth

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Hope you guys don't mind if I add another question, and I think it's related to the original post.

Is it permitted for women, single or married, to lead bible studies with men present?

Thanks in advance for any inputs. God bless! :wave:
It depends on what one's view of the Bible is and how one interprets other Scriptures. If women are not even allowed to speak in church, then it would seem not. If women cannot be in any position of authority over men or teach them anything, then it would again seem that the answer is no.

If, however, women are valued as equally valid contributors to Christianity and Christian discussion, then sure, go ahead! If we take Paul at his word, taking into consideration all his statements about women and church/leadership, we have to conclude that either 1) he is radically inconsistent, 2) his writings are tainted by later scribes or leaders, 3) he is writing to specific churches, addressing specific issues, and is not intending a blanket universal statement, or 4) there is some other explanation which can reconcile Paul saying "I do not allow women to speak in church, nor do I allow them authority" while giving authority to some women and approving others for speaking out in church. I find (3) the most reasonable, while holding out the possibility that (2) is also the case.
 
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A Brother In Christ

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Hope you guys don't mind if I add another question, and I think it's related to the original post.

Is it permitted for women, single or married, to lead bible studies with men present?

Thanks in advance for any inputs. God bless! :wave:

what does God word say?.....
1 tim 3:2
1 tim 3:12
 
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GSuSave

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what does God word say?.....
1 tim 3:2
1 tim 3:12

Thank you for your reply:

1 Tim 3:2, A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach (NKJV)

1 Tim 3:12, Let deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well (NKJV)

But I'm still confused because these verses pertain to deacons or church officers and I still haven't seen/read specifically for prohibiting women leading a bible study in a small settings (i.e., with friends, family, colleagues). I would really appreciate any advise or comment. Thanks again...God bless you ;)
 
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woobadooba

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Thank you for your reply:

1 Tim 3:2, A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach (NKJV)

1 Tim 3:12, Let deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well (NKJV)

But I'm still confused because these verses pertain to deacons or church officers and I still haven't seen/read specifically for prohibiting women leading a bible study in a small settings (i.e., with friends, family, colleagues). I would really appreciate any advise or comment. Thanks again...God bless you ;)

The idea here is that because the saying goes, "must be a husband of one wife" in speaking of the bishop's qualifications, that then means that the task is only to be carried out by a man. In other words, a woman isn't permitted by God to do this kind of work, or fill this role.

But the deacon also had to be the husband of one wife.

Uh oh...

What do we then do about Phobe? She was a deaconess, and Paul commended her for the work that she had done:idea: See Rom. 16:1

Moreover, if we were to take this argument to its final conclusion, then that would mean no one could be a bishop or a deacon in the church if he is not a husband of one wife:idea:

Of course, now we have some logical problems here;)

My advice to you is give those Bible studies. God will bless you for it:thumbsup:
 
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A Brother In Christ

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Thank you for your reply:

1 Tim 3:2, A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife, temperate, sober-minded, of good behavior, hospitable, able to teach (NKJV)

1 Tim 3:12, Let deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well (NKJV)

But I'm still confused because these verses pertain to deacons or church officers and I still haven't seen/read specifically for prohibiting women leading a bible study in a small settings (i.e., with friends, family, colleagues). I would really appreciate any advise or comment. Thanks again...God bless you ;)

1 tim 3:5....

I have a sister in law that has the gift of pastor teacher ... in pasting we have talked about scripture and I have learned some things... yet she teaches a womens bible study and my mother teaches the children at church

The dangerous part of this is that all man is depraved

1 thes 5:22 abstain from all appearance of evil[lack of character]
 
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woobadooba

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1 tim 3:5....

I have a sister in law that has the gift of pastor teacher ... in pasting we have talked about scripture and I have learned some things... yet she teaches a womens bible study and my mother teaches the children at church

The dangerous part of this is that all man is depraved

1 thes 5:22 abstain from all appearance of evil[lack of character]

You do realise that your point for support of the idea that only a man can be a deacon or a bishop because the rule says each one must be the "husband of one wife" excluded Paul from the pastoral office, right?

After all, he didn't have a wife. So by your interpretation of that passage Paul was guilty of violating his own rule!

It seems to me then that you really don't understand why Paul said such a thing...
 
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A Brother In Christ

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You do realise that your point for support of the idea that only a man can be a deacon or a bishop because the rule says each one must be the "husband of one wife" excluded Paul from the pastoral office, right?

After all, he didn't have a wife. So by your interpretation of that passage Paul was guilty of violating his own rule!

It seems to me then that you really don't understand why Paul said such a thing...

not being married was not the point ... the point does a woman marry a woman... no not in the church
 
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woobadooba

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not being married was not the point ... the point does a woman marry a woman... no not in the church

You are not being consistent with your own argument.

To be consistent with your own logic here you would have to agree that no man who isn't the husband of one wife could be a deacon or a bishop.

It would not just be an issue of being a man then, but of being married too.

I don't believe Paul would agree with you on how you have used his writings in this way.

Furthermore, you should keep in mind that it was lawful for Gentiles to marry more than one woman at the time when Paul wrote this. Christians weren't to associate themselves with such practices. It was never according to God's will for a man to have more than one wife. That's why he had said that one must be the husband of one wife.
 
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TrueMyth

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I would definitely agree with you here, woobadooba, that this passage is not about homosexuality. However, I disagree that it is also about being married. Remember Paul's statement here: "But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion" (1 Cor 7:9), and again: "I wish that all men were as I am. But each man has his own gift from God; one has this gift, another has that" (1 Cor. 7:7). While we must certainly take all of Paul's writings on the subject into account, these certainly seem to indicate that Paul elevated celibacy over marriage. When we combine this with your point that polygamy was very accepted in those days, it seems unlikely that Paul would say "husband of one wife" and mean that a deacon had to be married. It is most probable that he meant that a deacon could not be a polygamist.

Speaking of taking all of Paul's writings into account, did you see my response to your OP? Here is the link:

http://www.christianforums.com/t4067286 (Post #8)
 
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Zeena

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I's not just meant to be difficult, but impossible!
Women, left to thier thier own devices are gossips, slanderers, prone to quick judgemnt and thoroughly depraved! (As men, but thier weakness' usually lie elsewhere-heh).

Women aught to remain silent in church, wear a hat and a skirt or dress (no jeans)..
This is impossible with men, err women!

But all things are possible with Jesus! :kiss:
 
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