Since the Church of Christ and so many others place an intrinsic value on Acts 2:38 and baptism, lets examine this.
"Πέτρος δὲ πρὸς αὐτούς μετανοήσατε φησίν καὶ βαπτισθήτω ἕκαστος ὑμῶν ἐπὶ τῷ ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
εἰς ἄφεσιν τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν ὑμῶν καὶ λήμψεσθε τὴν δωρεὰν τοῦ ἁγίου πνεύματος" -Acts 2:38 (GNT)
"Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ
for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." -Acts 2:38 (KJV)
Our primary focus will be on one word and one word only.
Look at the Greek word "εἰς". In the Greek, it is a conjunction that connects the previous section with the next.
It is translated in many different ways:
Three times in Romans 4, the preposition “eiV” (ice) is used. In verse 5: “his faith is counted “eiV = for” righteousness.” In verse 9: “faith was reckoned to him “eiV = for” righteousness. In verse 22: “it was imputed to him “eiV = for” righteousness.” In each of these verses, the preposition “eiV” never means “in the stead of”, but signifies “towards, in order to, with a view to”, and in rare circumstances, it can mean “because of.” It has a uniform usage as “into” or “unto.” The clearest meaning in this passage of scriptures is found in verse 10: “with the heart man believeth unto “eiV” righteousness”: that the believing heart reaches out towards and lays hold of Christ Himself.
The Doctrine of Justification, Restated and Reviewed, By: me
However, in this section, it is rendered as "for".
1) into, unto, to, towards, for, among
AV —
into 573,
to 281,
unto 207,
for 140,
in 138,
on 58,
toward 29,
against 26,
misc 322
http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=G1519
Here is another verse:
"ἄνδρες Νινευῖται ἀναστήσονται ἐν τῇ κρίσει μετὰ τῆς γενεᾶς ταύτης καὶ κατακρινοῦσιν αὐτήν ὅτι μετενόησαν
εἰς τὸ κήρυγμα Ἰωνᾶ καὶ ἰδοὺ πλεῖον Ἰωνᾶ ὧδε." -Mt. 12:41 (GNT)
"The men of Nineveh shall rise in judgment with this generation, and shall condemn it: because they repented
at the preaching of Jonas; and, behold, a greater than Jonas is here." -Mt. 12:41 (KJV)
Here is our Greek word again, however, in this instance it is rendered "at".
The construction of the verse in Acts 2:38 misleads people to believe that baptism is for the remission of sins. "
...for the remission of sins" In other words, without baptism, there is no remission of sins.
One of the ways "εἰς" can be rendered is also "because of".
The construction of the verse in Acts 2:38 makes one believe that "εἰς" here has the inferred meaning of "in order to", "with a view to".
You must be baptized "in order to" have remission of sins.
That simply isn't true.
We have "εἰς" in Mt. 12:41 rendered "at", or a better rendering would have been "because of".
Ask yourself this question:
Did the people of Nineveh repent "εἰς-in order to" get Jonah to preach?
Or, did the people of Nineveh repent "εἰς-because of" the preaching of Jonah?
History and scriptures both prove it to be the latter.
Acts 2:38 should have been rendered:
"Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ
because of the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost."
We are baptized because of the command of Jesus.
"Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you:" -Mt. 28:19-20 (KJV)
However, there is no scripture that says that if you are not baptized you are not saved, neither are you condenmed.
That would have to take a major rewrite of the most beloved piece of scripture of all time.
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him
and is baptized should not perish, but have everlasting life." (italized words mine)
You do not get baptized "in order to" be saved, you do not get baptized "in order to" have remission of sins, you get baptized in obedience to the command of Jesus.
Epiphoskei said:
That's a rather tenuous argument from silence.
Brother, you know I have always enjoyed reading all your responses and have learned a lot from you, but in this instance, I'm afraid I have to disagree with you.
If baptism is such a major part in our salvation process, then why is the Apostle Paul the only recorded Apostle to have received baptism?
Phillip baptized the Ethopian, however, who baptized Phillip?
Who baptized Stephen?
Who baptized the disciples?
Even those who were baptized by John the Baptist had to be re-baptized. (cf. Acts 19:1-5)
Show me where I have to be baptized "in order to" with a view to" be saved, or have the remission of sins.
I'm sorry, but I just don't see it, neither do I believe it.
God Bless
Till all are one.