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Calvinism is not based on Scripture, it is based on inferences from a false presupposition--that God's sovereignty is his most prized attribute. Calvinism directly contradicts clear statements of scripture:
This proves nothing of predestination, nor elect, nor sheep, nor following Him; you used cucumbers instead of cherries.
You also say nothing of the man who seeks Him that he may live. Why is it a man will live if he seeks Him first? Is this Calvinist doctrine, that a man must seek Him so he may live?
This time you used pickled cucumbers. Nothing is said of sheep in the verses I provided. Nothing is too difficult in the verses I provided, which do not say what you are straining to prove.
And Arminianism based on man's most prized attribute his "free will"
Since Jesus is God, and He remained God while He was on this earth, He also remained OMNISCIENT. Addressing those who were not His sheep in His omniscience, He saw their unbelief, their hardness of heart, and therefore their unsaved condition in advance. Hence He was declaring them to be what they were -- not His sheep. This proves nothing to support Calvinism. It does prove that Jesus was, and is, omniscient.All of John 10 speaks to support the tenets of Calvinism.
Especially verse 26 and saving faith as referred to by Jesus himself."... But you don’t believe because you are not My sheep."
It proves the tenets of Calvinism. It also demonstrates you are not familiar with T.U.L.I.PSince Jesus is God, and He remained God while He was on this earth, He also remained OMNISCIENT. Addressing those who were not His sheep in His omniscience, He saw their unbelief, their hardness of heart, and therefore their unsaved condition in advance. Hence He was declaring them to be what they were -- not His sheep. This proves nothing to support Calvinism. It does prove that Jesus was, and is, omniscient.
The purpose of John 10 should not be distorted to prove that Christ died ONLY for His sheep. All Scripture tells us that Christ died for the sins of THE WHOLE WORLD.
The entire good news of Jesus Christ proves why Jesus died.But John 10 is focused on the Good Shepherd and His relationship to His sheep (the saints). It is absolutely true that since eternity past, the Father has given the Church (the saints) to His Son as His Bride and ultimately His wife. But that does not nullify the fact that if all men would believe, all would be saved, and all would become a part of His Body (the Church) as well as His Bride and Wife. God desires the salvation of all humanity, but only those who obey the Gospel will be saved.
1] Christ's death is set forth within Scripture as what accomplished salvation, rather than what made salvation possible.All Scripture tells us that Christ died for the sins of THE WHOLE WORLD.
If all men would believe. But it just so happens that not all men believe.It is absolutely true that since eternity past, the Father has given the Church (the saints) to His Son as His Bride and ultimately His wife. But that does not nullify the fact that if all men would believe, all would be saved, and all would become a part of His Body (the Church) as well as His Bride and Wife. God desires the salvation of all humanity, but only those who obey the Gospel will be saved.
I think it would be great SITH if you shared where you copied that information from. That way people can read more at the source site.
Everything in post #278
I see. Thank you.
Would you mind providing any passages which support this idea?
We can easily tell from Scripture that man cannot choose to accept Christ or the gift of salvation, and that faith is given by God. However, not everyone is given faith or salvation. So, as Owen posits (and as I've quoted many, many times),
"For whom did Christ die? The Father imposed His wrath due unto, and the Son underwent punishment for either: 1) All the sins of all men; 2) All the sins of some men; or 3) Some of the sins of all men. In which case it may be said: 1) If the last be true all men have some sins to answer for, and so none are saved; 2) That if the second be true, then Christ, in their stead suffered for all the sins of the elect in the whole world, and this is the truth; 3) But if the first is the case, why are not all men free from the punishment due unto their sins? You answer, Because of unbelief. I ask, Is this unbelief a sin, or is it not? If it be, then Christ suffered the punishment due unto it, or He did not. If He did, why must that hinder them more than their other sins for which He died? If He did not, He did not die for all their sins!"
Please tell us the punishment for man's sins.
Then tell us how Jesus underwent this punishment.
No problem.
"None is righteous, no, not one; no one understands; no one seeks for God. All have turned aside; together they have become worthless; no one does good, not even one." [Romans 3:10-12]
Ask the people screaming to Noah for help or the people of of Sodom as they were destroyed
The cup of Gods wrath was poured out on Him ....
Rev 14:10
The same shall drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out without mixture into the cup of his indignation; and he shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb:
Plus, if ALL turned aside from God, how were any saved in the Old Testament?
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