In looking at the language used, it would stand to reason that Paul is insinuating that Christ "learned" obedience, and that He had to be "made perfect," and thus was not always perfect?
I wouldn't read more into it than needed.
John Gill comments:
"
yet learned he obedience;
not to his parents, or civil magistrates, though that is true; nor merely to the precepts of the law, which he did; but unto death: through sufferings he became obedient to death, even the death of the cross: and this he learnt; not that he was ignorant of the nature of it; nor was he destitute of an obedient disposition to it; but the meaning is, he had an experience of it, and effected it; and which was voluntary, and done in our room and stead; and is the rule and the measure of our righteousness before God: and this he learned,"
Source
We know Jesus was/is God. But at the same time, He was "man".
He, just like us, had to endure temptation. (cf. Heb. 4:15)
Also, was Jesus "
driven" into the Wilderness (cf. Mk. 1:12) or was Jesus "
led" by the Spirit (cf. Mt. 4:1)?
Jesus, being co-equal with God, why would the Spirit drive or Led Jesus?
What would God the Father, or God the Spirit have to teach Jesus?
Remember also that the first 12 years of His life is a mystery unless you believe some of the Gnostic accounts.
God Bless
Till all are one.