- Oct 2, 2011
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ESV, 1P 2:
This question is overly loaded and needs to be made more precise.
Let's examine the Greek:
Actually the word 'because' was not in the Greek. Instead, there were
stumble [because]
προσκόπτουσιν (proskoptousin)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Plural
Strong's 4350: From pros and kopto; to strike at, i.e. Surge against; specially, to stub on, i.e. Trip up.
they disobey
ἀπειθοῦντες (apeithountes)
Verb - Present Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Plural
Strong's 544: To disobey, rebel, be disloyal, refuse conformity. From apeithes; to disbelieve.
The second verb functioned as an adverbial participle for the first verb.
Berean Literal Bible:
Personal / Relative Pronoun - Accusative Neuter Singular
Strong's 3739: Who, which, what, that.
Grammatically, the disobedient stumbling was a singular unit.
It was wrong for Gregg to separate the two verbs as two distinct units. Certain individuals are destined to stumble disobediently in the context of accepting or rejecting Jesus.
Does this stumbling imply that they will go to hell?
I want to be extra careful when it comes to eternal condemnation. Peter's passage suggests that this is the case to some degree, but I don't think it's a universal 100% implication, as claimed by White. For one thing, the strings 'condemn' or 'hell' are no where in the chapter. See double predestination.
Dr James White said to Steve Gregg:8bThey stumble because they disobey the word, as they were destined to do.
That's one translation of it.First Peter, chapter 2, verse 8 speaks of the stumbling of disbelievers at the proclamation of the person of Jesus Christ. Peter says they stumble because as they were destined do.
Is there an eternal decree of God relating to salvation?Given your repeated statement that you see no eternal decree of God relating to salvation,
This question is overly loaded and needs to be made more precise.
Gregg answered:could you please explain what Peter means?
Gregg made a distinction between God-determined stumbling and disobedience as two distinct things here.I believe that they stumble because of their disobedience. That's a stumbling that God determined that would happen for those who were disobedient. I don't personally believe that they were destinate to be disobedient.
Let's examine the Greek:
Actually the word 'because' was not in the Greek. Instead, there were
stumble [because]
προσκόπτουσιν (proskoptousin)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Plural
Strong's 4350: From pros and kopto; to strike at, i.e. Surge against; specially, to stub on, i.e. Trip up.
they disobey
ἀπειθοῦντες (apeithountes)
Verb - Present Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Plural
Strong's 544: To disobey, rebel, be disloyal, refuse conformity. From apeithes; to disbelieve.
The second verb functioned as an adverbial participle for the first verb.
Berean Literal Bible:
ὃ (ho)They stumble at being disobedient to the word, to which also they were appointed.
Personal / Relative Pronoun - Accusative Neuter Singular
Strong's 3739: Who, which, what, that.
Grammatically, the disobedient stumbling was a singular unit.
It was wrong for Gregg to separate the two verbs as two distinct units. Certain individuals are destined to stumble disobediently in the context of accepting or rejecting Jesus.
Does this stumbling imply that they will go to hell?
I want to be extra careful when it comes to eternal condemnation. Peter's passage suggests that this is the case to some degree, but I don't think it's a universal 100% implication, as claimed by White. For one thing, the strings 'condemn' or 'hell' are no where in the chapter. See double predestination.