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Does God Need Your Permission in Order to Save You?

FreeGrace2

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What about Rev. 5:9?
TD:)
" And they sang a new song, saying: “You are worthy to take the scroll and to open its seals, because you were slain, and with your blood you purchased for God persons from every tribe and language and people and nation."

What the verse doesn't say is "some persons" from every tribe, nalguage and people and nation.

Now, if the verse made it really plain and included the word "some" as an adjective to modify 'persons', Calvinists would have a point.

And that's my point. There are NO such verses, that say in plain language that Christ didn't die for everyone, or that His death was ONLY for some.

If Christ didn't die for everyone, why isn't there even 1 verse that plainly makes that point?

Because He died for all. It's that simple, and there are multiple verses that so so plainly.
 
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tdidymas

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Again, you have not given scripture which points out there are totally different kinds of “faith” instead of one kind of faith controlled by the individual to direct it the way the individual sees fit to do. In fact because everyone is being asked to place (direct) their faith in God and Christ it appears they all have the power to do so or it would be misleading.
I'd like you to respond to my point about your reasoning being the same as Pelagius, whose idea was condemned at several councils, and he was excommunicated in 418. He purported that if God gave a command to man, then it follows that man has the ability to perform it. This is the false idea that was condemned, because it denies that man is a sinner at heart.

So the problem of sin is not pointing to an inherent inability in man's physical or mental makeup, but rather his spiritual makeup. Your reasoning focuses only upon man's natural capability, and leaves out the fact that he is a sinner at heart, and a hater of God by implication. It is not that anyone is mentally incapable of formulating some natural belief about Christ, but that unregenerate man doesn't want to believe. It is an attitude problem, which is a spiritual issue by nature. So, it takes God doing something to a person to get their heart right, since people cannot get their heart right.

What I am saying is that God gives the command to believe, but no one will, until God Himself enables some to believe by changing the disposition of their heart, which is regeneration.

Your demand for some verse of scripture as prooftext to prove my statement that there are 2 kinds of faith is a useless request. There is no verse that says so, yet it is inherent in the teachings of Paul, James, and John. It is found in the context of their writings. James says "You say you believe..." which is the kind of faith he is addressing at that point, which is merely a claim, and has no root in spirituality. It is a kind that has not gone through any testing and resulted in endurance of trust in Christ, nor is it the kind that leads to obedience. So that kind of faith is "dead" or "useless," it being limited to theory only.

The scripture is full of words that have double meanings, just like any language has. Jesus said "do not judge lest you be judged," yet said "judge with a righteous judgment." It doesn't take a Ph.D. in semantics to see there are 2 kinds of judgment talked about here. There's a big confusion in the English language about the word "love" because it has various meanings in different contexts, and there are different Greek words for each category in scripture. The term "evil" has different meanings in different contexts, and may mean moral wrongdoing, or may mean natural calamity. Words are defined according to the context in which they are used, in scripture as well as in any language.

So when this is understood, then it easily follows that the "dead faith" that James condemns is a faith of a different kind than the faith that Paul is talking about which justifies us before God. It can't be the same, because Paul says that the justifying faith "establishes the law." Each kind of faith, the dead kind and the living kind, is based on a set of ideas having to do with relationship with God. One is the right kind, one is the wrong kind. One is based on natural reasoning, the other on illumination by the Holy Spirit.

What? You cannot cease from sowing good or bad seeds in this life. If you quit sowing bad seed you automatically sow good seed and if you quit sowing good seed you are sowing bad seed. You are not the one who makes the seed grow.

Paul is addressing Christians (they would automatically be sowing good seed) and telling them not to quit, so is Paul preaching a works based religion?

And this is the rub, isn't it? Some people say Paul teaches antinomianism, and some say he is teaching legalism. Some say he teaches salvation by faith alone, some say he's teaching salvation by works.

But let me address your "what" question: the seeds you sow, whether good or bad, is your works. And if you say that salvation is based on your sowing of those seeds, then it's a works based salvation. This is the whole controversy between grace and works. It has to do with who is in control of our destiny, whether we are in the kingdom of God, or not.

If we are in control, then our future is precarious. We will fear for our future, because at any time we might abandon our commitment to Christ and be lost forever, because we are naturally inclined to sin. We choose to come to Christ on our own, and we could choose to walk away on our own. The basis of our faith is in our own ability to choose rightly. I get that this is what you believe.

But if God is in control, then God is the one who started our walk with Christ, and He will be the one to finish it. We could not make ourselves born again, could not believe rightly, and could not keep ourselves in the faith, if we were on our own. But since God is in control of our destiny, we acknowledge that He is the one who started us in the faith, and He is the one who keeps us there. Our faith then is completely in Him. Our works are an outcome of God's work in us. Everything we do has faith in God involved in it. We attribute no good thing, including choices, to ourselves. The basis of this faith is in God's work. This is what I believe.

So then, when individuals hear commands from Christ or advice from the apostles, guess who's going to listen to it. Not just anyone, but only those born of God.

So, is this where our paths diverge?

Again! I fully agree with: “I don't think the Bible teaches that haters of God will submit to Him” and that is not the choice of the rebellious disobedient sinner! They do not have to be “brought to life” in order humbly accept pure charity as charity. They can do this from the same “dead” state the prodigal son was in.
Even if a spiritually dead person could accept "pure charity" as you call it, that doesn't mean they're saved. A skid row bum will accept charity from someone, but misuses it. Only those who have the wisdom that comes from above will use God's charity properly.


As Christians we are eternal but like we find in Gal. 8:6… whoever sows to please the Spirit, from the Spirit will reap eternal life.

Paul does not say: “did reap eternal life” but will, which seems to refer to eternal life in heaven. The eternal life in heaven is what the Christian can give up.

I don't agree with the way you interpret this. Paul is talking to people who may or may not be born again. He was aware, as it is today, that many in the churches are not born again, as Jesus told in the parables of the sower and the wheat/tares. Like I said before, the scripture has warnings of real spiritual danger, but those born of God will always heed them, because they have the Holy Spirit in them.

Besides, it doesn't say "to please the Spirit," it says "to the Spirit." This means sowing the faith that the Spirit is our guide and helper in life, and so are we led by the Spirit.


You say Heb. 12:16 is: a warning to "keep the faith." So would that not mean they have faith and could lose their faith?
It was the same back then as today. There are people who erroneously think they have control of themselves and their choices, in contrast with those who know they have a sinful nature, and want God in control. The difference is in how one thinks of himself and his relationship with God. The resulting difference is that one will live according to his feelings, and the other will live according to God's word. "The righteous shall live by faith" - so if a person is inclined to lose it, then their regeneration is suspect.

So the warning in Heb. 12:16 is not really about keeping the faith, but rather about who they belong to. The warning says "see to it..." which implies that Christians are to look out for each other, and "so fulfill the law of Christ." So, it's not about losing faith, but rather about "the deceitfulness of sin." Keep in mind this is directly after ch. 11 the faith chapter, so he is exhorting the people to believe in God in the same way as is exampled, in order for them to be assured that their faith is genuine. It's not about establishing faith, but about examining oneself to see what is the condition of their faith and their spiritual well being. It's an exhortation to be assured of their calling and election, as 2 Peter exhorts. It's part of entering the sabbath rest he talks about earlier in the epistle.

What support do you have for: “some of the audience (if not most of them) might not be born again”. They have already had to hold up to persecution which hypocrites have no reason to do. These letters were not published to be read by nonbelievers and why would a nonbeliever even want to read it?

The parables of Jesus concerning the sower and the wheat/tares.

We do not interpret scripture by a percent of scripture that supports one doctrine, but have to make all scripture consistent. I differ on your interpretation of the scripture you feel supports your doctrine. I like to challenge each verse individually to consider the most likely interpretation given the context.
I agree that scripture is consistent, and conforms to the law of non-contradiction. I agree with the hermeneutical rule "let scripture interpret scripture." I do not agree with the common ways that people interpret it wrongly, which may be:
1. imagining different ways it might mean, and coming up with the one most reasonable to them
2. taking conclusions they make about certain experiences, and imposing that on the text
3. imposing traditional ideas on the text
IOW, making the scripture mean what they reason it to mean (or what they want it to say).

The way I interpret scripture is to consider all of it as the wider context, in addition to the immediate context of what is written. I consider that contextual meaning is the important aspect of the scripture. Although correct meanings of individual words are important, it is not as important as contextual meaning, because meanings of individual words will be adjusted according to how the writer is using those words. I look for the original meaning of the text according to how the author meant it.

One of the rules of interpretation is to interpret obscure passages according to what clear passages say about the subject. Example in point is Rev. 5:9 which is clear that the blood of Christ does not apply to every person. Therefore, when John wrote 1 Jn. 2:2, he could not have meant every person included in "the whole world," since that would contradict Rev. 5:9. Christ redeemed only the believing subset of the whole world, not every person.

So when I said "the majority of scripture," I meant scripture as a whole. I was not meaning that some scripture contradicted it. The only scriptures that "contradict" the permanence of eternal life to believers are those who choose to interpret them that way. It only shows that interpretation of scripture is easily influenced by an agenda.

No. You do not “lose your salvation”, you cannot, but you can give it up to go back to pursuing the perceived pleasures of sin for a season. Sin can draw you back.
So you're saying that you can give it up, but you still have eternal life?


You can give it up to go back to pursuing the perceived pleasures of sin for a season. Sin can draw you back and if you quench the Spirit long enough unselfish Godly type Love loses its appeal.
I see you describing a hypothetical experience, but not sure your point. I was trying to point out the difference between someone led by the Spirit vs. someone not.

I see Hebrews as teaching very seriously about believing in Christ, and 12:16 is part of that context. It seems to me that he is talking about faith in Christ transcending feelings, such that a person becomes willing to lay down desires and fears for the sake of spiritual inheritance.




I never said they weren’t “Sons of God are born from God, not from a natural human choice.” The human choice is in accepting what was done for them.

"What was done for them" - exactly, that they are born of God, that God gifted them with grace, that their faith is based on the work of God in them. That's my point. A person's choice to follow Christ is the result of God's work in them.

All rebellious disobedient nonbelieving sinners are hell bound and all mature adult have been there. Only God can give them a birthright to heaven. The “question” is: What keeps some from getting the birthright? I would say God has the desire, the power and the Love to give that birthright to everyone, but it has to be humbly accepted as pure charity by the hell bound person. Christ teaches us in Luke 7 “…he who is forgiven much Loves much…”, so the only way I see to obtain this Godly type Love (which cannot be made instinctive to humans [robotic] nor can it be forced on the person [like a shotgun wedding with God holding the shotgun]) is through the person humbly accepting God’s forgiveness of an unbelievable huge debt to get an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love).

The "shotgun wedding" idea is a straw man, because when God freely gives saving grace to someone, they become willing to follow Christ, because God has made them willing. It's not by shotgun.

The only people who humble themselves as you describe are those predestined by God to receive His grace and have their sinful nature defeated in them. I think Paul is pretty clear about this in Rom. 9 and Eph. 1 and 2.

So please define "mature adult." I don't know who you're talking about.

If the person does not want to humble themselves to the point of accepting pure charity, they would not be happy in heaven where it is one huge Love feast of only unselfish type Love.

People will do almost anything to get around having to make the choice to humbly accept pure charity to the point of saying “you can’t do it”. If you are saying: “Man does not have the ability of their own autonomous free will to humble themselves to the point of taking charity, you have taken yourself out of having to accept pure charity? You are saying: “the charity came to me in the form of being chosen” and then the Spirit moved me to do righteous stuff, but you did not accept that charity as charity?

I am saying God is not forcing you to accept His charity as charity if you do not want it. If you want to be Loved in spite of the way you are and you want to Love others the way God Loves you, then great.

You are presenting this "pure charity" idea as if God lays a gift on a table and it is up to you to take that gift. Is this what you're saying?

I agree lots of details are left out and we cannot extrapolate. It is parallel to some Spiritual truth.
yes.


The “nature” Adam and Eve had caused them to sin, so our nature does not have to be different. The “knowledge” of evil provides tons of ways to sin so we will sin.

Sin actually has purpose in that it helps the willing nonbelieving sinner in fulfill his/her objective.

I disagree with you here. Paul wrote "there is nothing good in me, that is in my flesh." So I think your idea that sin has a purpose to help is not Biblical. There is nothing good in it.

I also think you might be confused between the physical and spiritual natures.

God does command all people to obey, but they soon realize they need more than their own power to obey (forgiveness, Love and the indwelling Holy Spirit.
There are many fools in this world who neither realize they need more power, nor are willing to acknowledge God's command. That's the sinful nature.

So God telling them to “obey” does mean they can, but they will have to accept help.
Here is where our paths diverge. Your idea is what the Roman church teaches, and is rooted in the teachings of Pelagius. It's a denial that all people (initially) are as steeped in sin as Paul describes in Rom. 3:10-18 and Eph. 2:1-4. In Rom. 8 he says "the mind set on the flesh cannot please God." This is a statement of inability. One might argue that they can't please God (that is, with faith, which is the law of God he is talking about), because they don't want to please God. They can't obey because they don't want to obey.

So, it is God's grace freely given to individuals without merit, that cause people to want to obey. Those are the ones who realize they need help from God.

There is no “righteousness” in being selfish. Jesus was not selfish and He is our example. The individual making the choice is not doing this out of a compelling “Love” for God so it is worthless (1 Cor. 13:1-7).

What's your point here? Are you trying to say that a person can choose to believe in Christ for a selfish reason, and that makes it an "unrighteous choice"? If so, I think your idea is not Biblical. Paul clearly states that faith in Christ makes a person righteous. Therefore, it is a righteous choice, and the unregenerate can't make that choice, because a person in their natural state with a sinful nature can't make themselves righteous. Faith is the law of God a person must obey to be justified, and that takes an act of God in that person.
TD:)
 
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tdidymas

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" And they sang a new song, saying: “You are worthy to take the scroll and to open its seals, because you were slain, and with your blood you purchased for God persons from every tribe and language and people and nation."

What the verse doesn't say is "some persons" from every tribe, nalguage and people and nation.

Now, if the verse made it really plain and included the word "some" as an adjective to modify 'persons', Calvinists would have a point.

And that's my point. There are NO such verses, that say in plain language that Christ didn't die for everyone, or that His death was ONLY for some.

If Christ didn't die for everyone, why isn't there even 1 verse that plainly makes that point?

Because He died for all. It's that simple, and there are multiple verses that so so plainly.

The idea of it being a subset is in the nature of the language. It says "from every tribe..." It doesn't say "every tribe..." The fact that it is saying "from" shows that it is some, not all.
TD:)
 
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FreeGrace2

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The idea of it being a subset is in the nature of the language. It says "from every tribe..." It doesn't say "every tribe..." The fact that it is saying "from" shows that it is some, not all.
TD:)
What should be obvious is that if John included the word "some", you'd have a point.

As it is, you don't, because there are multiple verses that say that Christ died for all.

Again, I ask; why aren't there ANY verses that plainly say that Christ's death was only for some and not for everyone, if that were true?

In John 1:29 and 4:42, Jesus is described as the Savior of the world and takes away the sin of the world.

There is nothing in either context that would limit "world" to the Calvinist's favorite explanation, "it means "world of the elect".
 
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tdidymas

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What should be obvious is that if John included the word "some", you'd have a point.

As it is, you don't, because there are multiple verses that say that Christ died for all.

Again, I ask; why aren't there ANY verses that plainly say that Christ's death was only for some and not for everyone, if that were true?

In John 1:29 and 4:42, Jesus is described as the Savior of the world and takes away the sin of the world.

There is nothing in either context that would limit "world" to the Calvinist's favorite explanation, "it means "world of the elect".

I don't see you addressing the language of the text as it stands. My explanation is very reasonable, since all languages do the same function. For example, if someone said they did a survey in which they questioned people from every neighborhood, it would be unreasonable to assume they questioned every person in every neighborhood. In that context, it is reasonable to infer that only a sample of people were surveyed in each neighborhood.

So since we know that many will incur lake of fire judgment, Christ could not have redeemed those people, otherwise they would be saved, since all Christ redeems are saved. This is laid out in Rom. 8:29-31, where all who are called are justified, and all who are justified are glorified (as good as done). Therefore, according to the context of scripture, we can see that the effectiveness of Christ's sacrifice is applied only to those who believe, and not to unbelievers on whom the wrath of God remains.

Isaiah 53 says that God looked on His travail and was satisfied, so the wrath of God is satisfied on all who are purchased with Christ's blood, so it obviously doesn't include everyone, but only those believing. No one is saying that the potential of Christ's sacrifice could redeem everyone, because it is worthy enough to redeem everything in the universe. But by design and scriptural context, it covers only those who believe.
TD:)
 
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FreeGrace2

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I don't see you addressing the language of the text as it stands.
I sure did. This is what I said:
"What should be obvious is that if John included the word "some", you'd have a point."

My explanation is very reasonable, since all languages do the same function. For example, if someone said they did a survey in which they questioned people from every neighborhood, it would be unreasonable to assume they questioned every person in every neighborhood. In that context, it is reasonable to infer that only a sample of people were surveyed in each neighborhood.
This is my point; that IF Christ's death was limited to LESS THAN everyone, why isn't there ANY verse that actually makes that clear?

And there are MULTIPLE verses that plainly SAY that Christ died for all.

So since we know that many will incur lake of fire judgment, Christ could not have redeemed those people, otherwise they would be saved, since all Christ redeems are saved.
I'm not arguing that Christ redeemed everyone. He paid the sin penalty for everyone. That's different.

This is laid out in Rom. 8:29-31, where all who are called are justified, and all who are justified are glorified (as good as done). Therefore, according to the context of scripture, we can see that the effectiveness of Christ's sacrifice is applied only to those who believe, and not to unbelievers on whom the wrath of God remains.
I do not argue that Christ's sacrifice was "effective" for unbelievers. Not even close.

The Bible plainly says that Christ died for all. Without limitation, which is an artificial limitation put on it by Calvinists.

Do you believe Christ's death saves people?

Isaiah 53 says that God looked on His travail and was satisfied, so the wrath of God is satisfied on all who are purchased with Christ's blood, so it obviously doesn't include everyone, but only those believing.
This is where you misunderstand. God was satisfied with Christ's work on the cross for everyone. That alone doesn't equal salvation, which it seems you assume.

iow, God's justice, which is perfect, MUST be satisfied BEFORE He will grant the free gift of eternal life/salvation to anyone. Once God's perfect justice was satisfied by what Christ did on the cross, God was free to bestow the free gift of eternal life to all who believe in Christ for salvation.

I like to think of Christ's payment as purchasing the GIFT of eternal life for everyone. iow, there is a Christmas present for everyone in humanity. All under a very huge Christmas tree. Those who believe are given their Christmas present.

But there are many (more) who aren't interested in getting their free gift, and therefore, they never receive it.

So, what's the flaw in this?
 
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bling

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So the problem of sin is not pointing to an inherent inability in man's physical or mental makeup, but rather his spiritual makeup. Your reasoning focuses only upon man's natural capability, and leaves out the fact that he is a sinner at heart, and a hater of God by implication. It is not that anyone is mentally incapable of formulating some natural belief about Christ, but that unregenerate man doesn't want to believe. It is an attitude problem, which is a spiritual issue by nature. So, it takes God doing something to a person to get their heart right, since people cannot get their heart right.
God does give commands and man can follow them, just not right then, with only their own ability, so man will need help. It is up to man to accept God’s help or God will continue to allow man to fin for himself, until he reaches the point he will never ask for help (Charity) or he seeks charity.

We want to blame God and not ourselves for failing to obey (God gave us a bad nature). God did not say: “You have to do this on your own without My help”.

When Paul describes his first being taught about coveting (Ro.7) his “attitude” was great “For what I want to do I do not do, but what I hate I do. Saul/Paul hated the fact he was sinning and he personally could not keep from sinning, but he did hate sin.

I agree man alone cannot get his heart right the sane as Paul when he was Saul could not get his heart right, but like Saul/Paul you can just accept God’s help for the selfish reason you do not want to keep doing what you hate.

It is hard to take undeserved charity from someone you hate, but soldiers in battle do it all the time when they surrender.
What I am saying is that God gives the command to believe, but no one will, until God Himself enables some to believe by changing the disposition of their heart, which is regeneration.
“Believe” is something anyone can do, but just “believing” is nothing. 1 Cor. 13: 2 “…if I have a faith that can move mountains, but do not have love, I am nothing.” God gives us this Godly type Love we need.
Your demand for some verse of scripture as prooftext to prove my statement that there are 2 kinds of faith is a useless request. There is no verse that says so, yet it is inherent in the teachings of Paul, James, and John. It is found in the context of their writings. James says "You say you believe..." which is the kind of faith he is addressing at that point, which is merely a claim, and has no root in spirituality. It is a kind that has not gone through any testing and resulted in endurance of trust in Christ, nor is it the kind that leads to obedience. So that kind of faith is "dead" or "useless," it being limited to theory only.
Faith extended to anyone one or thing other than God is useless for salvation and we see it in all mature adults (it is not just a mere claim, unless they say it is toward God, when it is not) , but taking that faith and directing it toward God can allow the person to humble themselves to the point of accepting God Charity (Love).
The scripture is full of words that have double meanings, just like any language has. Jesus said "do not judge lest you be judged," yet said "judge with a righteous judgment." It doesn't take a Ph.D. in semantics to see there are 2 kinds of judgment talked about here. There's a big confusion in the English language about the word "love" because it has various meanings in different contexts, and there are different Greek words for each category in scripture. The term "evil" has different meanings in different contexts, and may mean moral wrongdoing, or may mean natural calamity. Words are defined according to the context in which they are used, in scripture as well as in any language.
Very Good
So when this is understood, then it easily follows that the "dead faith" that James condemns is a faith of a different kind than the faith that Paul is talking about which justifies us before God. It can't be the same, because Paul says that the justifying faith "establishes the law." Each kind of faith, the dead kind and the living kind, is based on a set of ideas having to do with relationship with God. One is the right kind, one is the wrong kind. One is based on natural reasoning, the other on illumination by the Holy Spirit.
Sorry but the faith itself can be the same, with the object the person is directing their faith to can be different. The God given “faith” given to all mature adults is not the problem, but like all good things God has given man, they can be wastefully used for selfish reasons.


But let me address your "what" question: the seeds you sow, whether good or bad, is your works. And if you say that salvation is based on your sowing of those seeds, then it's a works based salvation. This is the whole controversy between grace and works. It has to do with who is in control of our destiny, whether we are in the kingdom of God, or not.
The “seeds” I sow is my life here on earth which will judge me, but if you want to call it “work” go ahead. At the judgement did you give a glass of water to someone in need, because that (work) will judge you.

Your faith will allow the Spirit to “work” through you doing good stuff, so if the Spirit is not working through you sowing good seed you are lacking in faith.
If we are in control, then our future is precarious. We will fear for our future, because at any time we might abandon our commitment to Christ and be lost forever, because we are naturally inclined to sin. We choose to come to Christ on our own, and we could choose to walk away on our own. The basis of our faith is in our own ability to choose rightly. I get that this is what you believe.
No it is not what I believe.

We did not “choose to come to Christ”, but were just willing to accept charity from the being we hate. I did not “choose” to join God/Christ, the wanting to join God/Christ comes after, out of gratitude (Love) for all God has showered upon us.

You say: “we are naturally inclined to sin”, so are you saying that about Christians, who with the indwelling Holy Spirit and a Godly type Love now have the power not to sin?
But if God is in control, then God is the one who started our walk with Christ, and He will be the one to finish it. We could not make ourselves born again, could not believe rightly, and could not keep ourselves in the faith, if we were on our own. But since God is in control of our destiny, we acknowledge that He is the one who started us in the faith, and He is the one who keeps us there. Our faith then is completely in Him. Our works are an outcome of God's work in us. Everything we do has faith in God involved in it. We attribute no good thing, including choices, to ourselves. The basis of this faith is in God's work. This is what I believe.
You seem to throw everything together to make in one action. While the simple step of just selfishly (nothing good about that) being willing to accept God charity (while God is your enemy) is the step after man’s ability to accept or reject, and the step after accepting is God’s step to shower you with gifts.

Your combining everything makes God at fault for all those who go to hell, since God controls their rejecting His help.

So, is this where our paths diverge?
No, our “path” does not diverge there, because there are many consecutive forks in the road and not one big combined fork. The one fork I talk about you skip over and avoid addressing and seem to act like it is not there. This is where man makes the autonomous free will choice God has allowed man to make to humble accept or reject God’s Love (charity).

Even if a spiritually dead person could accept "pure charity" as you call it, that doesn't mean they're saved. A skid row bum will accept charity from someone, but misuses it. Only those who have the wisdom that comes from above will use God's charity properly.
Right!! Even if man could accept pure charity does not mean he is saved and in a lot of ways he should not be saved. Like the prodigal son not deserving anything good from his father even an undeserved slave job would be way beyond his previous actions.

The “skid row bum” like it who “accepts charity” can be very much like the servant “accepting” charity form the king in Matt. 18. If the bum is putting on an act for all the wrong motives, he is not truly accepting charity as charity. He is not accepting charity. Jesus presented a truism which is true each time every time all the time: “…he who truly accepts pure charity (forgiveness) as charity of an unbelievable huge dept will automatically obtain an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love)…”. The correct acceptance is required.


I don't agree with the way you interpret this. Paul is talking to people who may or may not be born again. He was aware, as it is today, that many in the churches are not born again, as Jesus told in the parables of the sower and the wheat/tares. Like I said before, the scripture has warnings of real spiritual danger, but those born of God will always heed them, because they have the Holy Spirit in them.
Galatians is written to Christians. What verse say: “many in the churches are not born again”? Paul in his letters at the beginning tell you who the letter is addressed to and it is saints, believers, God’s people and really only Christians. Paul never says: “and non-Christians”?

You have to say Paul must be addressing some non-Christians to maintain your doctrine.
Besides, it doesn't say "to please the Spirit," it says "to the Spirit." This means sowing the faith that the Spirit is our guide and helper in life, and so are we led by the Spirit.
OK?

I agree that scripture is consistent, and conforms to the law of non-contradiction. I agree with the hermeneutical rule "let scripture interpret scripture." I do not agree with the common ways that people interpret it wrongly, which may be:
1. imagining different ways it might mean, and coming up with the one most reasonable to them
2. taking conclusions they make about certain experiences, and imposing that on the text
3. imposing traditional ideas on the text
IOW, making the scripture mean what they reason it to mean (or what they want it to say).

The way I interpret scripture is to consider all of it as the wider context, in addition to the immediate context of what is written. I consider that contextual meaning is the important aspect of the scripture. Although correct meanings of individual words are important, it is not as important as contextual meaning, because meanings of individual words will be adjusted according to how the writer is using those words. I look for the original meaning of the text according to how the author meant it.

One of the rules of interpretation is to interpret obscure passages according to what clear passages say about the subject. Example in point is Rev. 5:9 which is clear that the blood of Christ does not apply to every person. Therefore, when John wrote 1 Jn. 2:2, he could not have meant every person included in "the whole world," since that would contradict Rev. 5:9. Christ redeemed only the believing subset of the whole world, not every person.
1 Jn. 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.

And Rev. 5:9 And they sang a new song, saying: “You are worthy to take the scroll and to open its seals, because you were slain, and with your blood you purchased for God persons from every tribe and language and people and nation.

Better: “Revelation 5:9 and they sang a new song, saying, “Worthy art thou to take the scroll and to open its seals, for thou waste slain and by thy blood didst ransom men for God from every tribe and tongue and people and nation,”

Rev. 5:9 does not say: “Christ was not the atoning sacrifice for everyone in the world?”

This gets into the huge subject of atonement.

Christ sacrifice is the huge ransom payment, but the kidnapper can refuse to accept the ransom payment, so that child is not set free to enter the Kingdom to be with God, but all the children of the kidnappers who accepted the ransom payment did go to the father.

Briefly and only on the single subject of the ransoming/kidnap scenario:

Christ Crucified is described by Paul, Peter, Jesus, John and the Hebrew writer as a ransom payment (it is not even said to be like a ransom payment, but it was a ransom payment).

I find the ransom description more than just an analogy and an excellent fit and I am not talking about the “Ransom Theory of Atonement”

(The “Ransom Theory of Atonement” has God paying satan the cruel torture, humiliation and murder of Christ but: Does God owe Satan anything? Is there some cosmic “law” saying you have to pay the kidnapper? Would it not be wrong for God to pay satan, if God could just as easily and safely take back His children without paying satan?)



Would a ransom as those in the first century understood it (and it was well known Caesura at 21 had been kidnapped and a ransom paid for him) included the following elements:

1. Someone other than the captive paying the ransom.

2. The payment is a huge sacrificial payment for the payer, who would personally prefer not to pay.

3. Since those that come to God must come as children, it is the children of God that go to the Father.

4. The payer cannot safely or for some other reason get his children any other way than making the payment.

5. The kidnapper is totally undeserving.

6. The kidnapper can accept or reject the payment.

We can agree on most of the parts with the atonement process being just like a ransom experience: The children of God be held out of the kingdom; Deity making the huge sacrificial payment; Christ’s torture, humiliation and murder on the cross being the payment; and the freedom given the child to enter the kingdom after the ransom is paid. But who is this unworthy kidnapper God will pay to release His children?

We can only come to our Father as children, so who is keeping the nonbeliever in the unbelieving state (who is this kidnapper)?

You are not trying to get the nonbelieving sinner to accept a book, a theology, a doctrine or a message, but Jesus Christ and Him crucified, but Jesus Christ and Him crucified is described in scripture as the ransom payment?

If the nonbelieving sinner accepts Jesus Christ and Him crucified (the ransom payment) a child will be set free to enter the Kingdom, but if the nonbeliever refuses to accept Christ (the ransom payment) a child is kept from the kingdom. So does that not sound like a ransom scenario?

There is the one ransom, but could there be many unworthy kidnappers holding the children of God back?

If the kidnapper does accept the payment has he/she done something worthy or virtually criminal?

Look at a real “Christ crucified” sermon of Peter in Acts 2 and he says nothing about Christ taking our place on the cross.

That is just an introduction to think about.


To be continued
 
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bling

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So when I said "the majority of scripture," I meant scripture as a whole. I was not meaning that some scripture contradicted it. The only scriptures that "contradict" the permanence of eternal life to believers are those who choose to interpret them that way. It only shows that interpretation of scripture is easily influenced by an agenda.
Could that work both ways?

What did I do wrong in interpreting the ransom?
So you're saying that you can give it up, but you still have eternal life?
No

I see you describing a hypothetical experience, but not sure your point. I was trying to point out the difference between someone led by the Spirit vs. someone not.
Can a person quench the Spirit?

"What was done for them" - exactly, that they are born of God, that God gifted them with grace, that their faith is based on the work of God in them. That's my point. A person's choice to follow Christ is the result of God's work in them.
I agree with: “A person's choice to follow Christ is the result of God's work in them”, yes when you accept God’s shower of wonderful gifts, one working in you as it is Godly type Love, you will choose to follow Christ out of gratitude (Love).

The "shotgun wedding" idea is a straw man, because when God freely gives saving grace to someone, they become willing to follow Christ, because God has made them willing. It's not by shotgun.
With your scenario the shot gun wedding fits, since the free gift of saving grace comes before the ability to accept that gift, so it is forced on you (it is not your choice at the time), but afterwards you can accept. With a shotgun wedding you might later like the bride you got, but it was not your choice to begin with.
The only people who humble themselves as you describe are those predestined by God to receive His grace and have their sinful nature defeated in them. I think Paul is pretty clear about this in Rom. 9 and Eph. 1 and 2.
Here is a brief explanation of Ro. 9:

Romans 9

Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.

The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.



The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!



This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).



Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?



If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?



This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.



Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”



The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).



How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.



Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.



Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!



The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.



If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.

Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?

This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.







The Jews were given a higher position on earth, but with that position came added responsibility which they poorly handled. I do not see them in Rome having any advantage over the gentile Christians, but what do you think?
So please define "mature adult." I don't know who you're talking about.

Those who have sinned.
You are presenting this "pure charity" idea as if God lays a gift on a table and it is up to you to take that gift. Is this what you're saying?

It is up to you to just be willing to humbly accept the gift since it is not something you even have to reach down to get.

I disagree with you here. Paul wrote "there is nothing good in me, that is in my flesh." So I think your idea that sin has a purpose to help is not Biblical. There is nothing good in it.
I am not saying: “sin is good or God desires for us to sin”, but like lots tragedies that happen in our life good can and should come from it. They are opportunities to learn and will later be added to our witness as we change.

There are many fools in this world who neither realize they need more power, nor are willing to acknowledge God's command. That's the sinful nature.
Not “all people” are like that all the time, since their conscience for at least a while is burdened from in the past hurting others.
Here is where our paths diverge. Your idea is what the Roman church teaches, and is rooted in the teachings of Pelagius. It's a denial that all people (initially) are as steeped in sin as Paul describes in Rom. 3:10-18 and Eph. 2:1-4. In Rom. 8 he says "the mind set on the flesh cannot please God." This is a statement of inability. One might argue that they can't please God (that is, with faith, which is the law of God he is talking about), because they don't want to please God. They can't obey because they don't want to obey.
Again, "the mind set on the flesh cannot please God.", but that does not mean you cannot for selfish reasons (being selfish is never pleasing to God) can’t humbly accept pure charity from God, later on after God showers them with gifts they can obey.
So, it is God's grace freely given to individuals without merit, that cause people to want to obey. Those are the ones who realize they need help from God.
I fully agree, but we disagree on the timing of God’s free gift which causes them to obey and the timing of the ability to extend a very small amount of faith toward God. I am saying salvation comes after: “they of their own free will are just willing to accept charity from the being they are hating” and you are saying it is thrust upon them (forced upon them) while they are not willing to accept God’s help (charity). The scriptures you use to support your conclusion showing the timing of this first general faith given all mature adults and that the gifts that allow a person to obey happen before a willingness to accept charity.

God is wanting additional individuals willing to humble accept His charity (Love) of their own free will and thus of their own free will Love with a Godly type Love, Him back. Godly type Love is not something programmed into the individual or God, but requires free will choice.

Would you prefer to be Loved by a spouse who had no choice but to Love you or be Loved by a spouse who had many other likely choices, but of her/his own free will chose to Love you?

What's your point here? Are you trying to say that a person can choose to believe in Christ for a selfish reason, and that makes it an "unrighteous choice"? If so, I think your idea is not Biblical. Paul clearly states that faith in Christ makes a person righteous. Therefore, it is a righteous choice, and the unregenerate can't make that choice, because a person in their natural state with a sinful nature can't make themselves righteous. Faith is the law of God a person must obey to be justified, and that takes an act of God in that person.
:)
Paul is talking to Christians. A nonbelieving sinner is selfish, so his/her faith is not faithfulness, but a weak trust type faith in Love (God/Christ being Love). The nonbelieving sinner is not righteous by definition, so is Paul talking about faithfulness, saving faith, or just general faith (which all people have).
 
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tdidymas

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I sure did. This is what I said:
"What should be obvious is that if John included the word "some", you'd have a point."


This is my point; that IF Christ's death was limited to LESS THAN everyone, why isn't there ANY verse that actually makes that clear?

And there are MULTIPLE verses that plainly SAY that Christ died for all.


I'm not arguing that Christ redeemed everyone. He paid the sin penalty for everyone. That's different.


I do not argue that Christ's sacrifice was "effective" for unbelievers. Not even close.

The Bible plainly says that Christ died for all. Without limitation, which is an artificial limitation put on it by Calvinists.

Do you believe Christ's death saves people?


This is where you misunderstand. God was satisfied with Christ's work on the cross for everyone. That alone doesn't equal salvation, which it seems you assume.

iow, God's justice, which is perfect, MUST be satisfied BEFORE He will grant the free gift of eternal life/salvation to anyone. Once God's perfect justice was satisfied by what Christ did on the cross, God was free to bestow the free gift of eternal life to all who believe in Christ for salvation.

I like to think of Christ's payment as purchasing the GIFT of eternal life for everyone. iow, there is a Christmas present for everyone in humanity. All under a very huge Christmas tree. Those who believe are given their Christmas present.

But there are many (more) who aren't interested in getting their free gift, and therefore, they never receive it.

So, what's the flaw in this?
The flaw in it is that it presumes that people have enough spiritual wisdom and power to make the effort to "get their gift." Not to mention even the desire. Paul makes it clear that no one will do it in Rom. 3:10-18, since in the unregenerate state we're all sinners. That means no one wants to be reconciled with God until God moves in their hearts.

Your statement about addressing the text I don't see. It looks more like you are addressing how you judge it.

Concerning who Christ died for, let's examine John 10:
:15 "I lay down my life for the sheep" - For the sheep, not for everyone.
:26 "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep" - See that Christ did not lay His life down for those not His sheep.

The only doctrine that fits well in this context is the doctrine of reformed theology. Meaning, Christ's death was for those predestined to adoption as sons of God. So, potentially Christ's sacrificial atonement was unlimited by virtue, but limited by design and purpose. Jesus said He died for His sheep, which obviously implies He did not die for those not His sheep. Furthermore, He is speaking of His sheep as those people chosen before they become His followers. IOW, we are His sheep by virtue of His choice, not becoming His sheep by virtue of our choice.

So then, the debate boils down to the original question of the OP, for what reason did God predestine people? Was it by virtue of His own pleasure, without regard to anything those people might decide to do in the future, or was it because He foresaw the virtue of their choice to believe, and thereby merit their justification? I say it's the former, and that our faith in Christ is the gift of God.
TD:)
 
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FreeGrace2

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The flaw in it is that it presumes that people have enough spiritual wisdom and power to make the effort to "get their gift."
The "flaw" in your analysis is thinking there it takes "spiritual wisdom and power" and one must "make the EFFORT to get their gift.

The whole concept of receiving a free gift is that it is received PASSIVELY. If one TAKES a "gift" by EFFORT, let's just not call it a gift, ok? Let's, instead, call the police and report a THEFT. For that's what it is.

Not to mention even the desire. Paul makes it clear that no one will do it in Rom. 3:10-18, since in the unregenerate state we're all sinners.
I think you've misread the passage. Those verses are 6 quotes from the OT that demonstrate the various ways that all people are sinners. Do all unbelievers murder and shed blood? Of course not. And none of the verses say that a person can't receive a free gift.

That means no one wants to be reconciled with God until God moves in their hearts.
It's already been done; when Christ died for them on the cross.

Your statement about addressing the text I don't see. It looks more like you are addressing how you judge it.
"the text"? What text are you referring to?

Concerning who Christ died for, let's examine John 10:
:15 "I lay down my life for the sheep" - For the sheep, not for everyone.
:26 "But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep" - See that Christ did not lay His life down for those not His sheep.
Great passage!! I love it!!

Let's note the various sheep mentioned in ch 10.

There are these as noted by Jesus:
1. My sheep
2. other sheep of Mine
3. those not of My sheep

So, in ch 10, Jesus refers to all of humanity by the words "the sheep". That's who He died for. If your theory were correct, He'd have said that He would die for "My sheep and the other sheep of Mine". Or just "My sheep". But he also noted those who were "not of My sheep" (v.26).

The only doctrine that fits well in this context is the doctrine of reformed theology.
Nope.

Meaning, Christ's death was for those predestined to adoption as sons of God.
Can you provide any verse that makes this clear?

So, potentially Christ's sacrificial atonement was unlimited by virtue, but limited by design and purpose.
Except you have no evidence for that. Just the Calvinist talking points.

Jesus said He died for His sheep, which obviously implies He did not die for those not His sheep.
Nope. As I showed above, He would die for THE sheep. If His death was not for everyone, He would have made that clear by SAYING that He would die for His sheep.

Furthermore, He is speaking of His sheep as those people chosen before they become His followers.
Were you reading His mind when He said it?

IOW, we are His sheep by virtue of His choice, not becoming His sheep by virtue of our choice.
Nice talking point, but that's it. There is no evidence for this in Scripture.

So then, the debate boils down to the original question of the OP, for what reason did God predestine people? Was it by virtue of His own pleasure, without regard to anything those people might decide to do in the future, or was it because He foresaw the virtue of their choice to believe, and thereby merit their justification? I say it's the former, and that our faith in Christ is the gift of God.
TD:)
Well, I think you're asking the wrong question. It isn't what reason did God predestine people, but to whom?

Then the question of for what reason.

We see from Rom 8 that it is believers to whom He predestined. And to what did He predestine believers FOR? "To be conformed to the image of His Son."

What does that mean? iow, God the Father wants all His children (children by faith in Christ, not by election or adoption) to be conformed to the image of His Son.

I'm sure you have heard the words "Christ-like". That's what believers have been predestined for. Unfortunately, not all reach their predestination.
 
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renniks

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But if God is in control, then God is the one who started our walk with Christ, and He will be the one to finish it. We could not make ourselves born again, could not believe rightly, and could not keep ourselves in the faith, if we were on our own. But since God is in control of our destiny, we acknowledge that He is the one who started us in the faith, and He is the one who keeps us there. Our faith then is completely in Him.
Only what scripture actually teaches is the third option... Not that we can make ourselves born again, with that we can choose to rely on God or not, every step of the way.
 
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tdidymas

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God does give commands and man can follow them, just not right then, with only their own ability, so man will need help. It is up to man to accept God’s help or God will continue to allow man to fin for himself, until he reaches the point he will never ask for help (Charity) or he seeks charity.

We want to blame God and not ourselves for failing to obey (God gave us a bad nature). God did not say: “You have to do this on your own without My help”.

When Paul describes his first being taught about coveting (Ro.7) his “attitude” was great “For what I want to do I do not do, but what I hate I do. Saul/Paul hated the fact he was sinning and he personally could not keep from sinning, but he did hate sin.

I agree man alone cannot get his heart right the sane as Paul when he was Saul could not get his heart right, but like Saul/Paul you can just accept God’s help for the selfish reason you do not want to keep doing what you hate.

It is hard to take undeserved charity from someone you hate, but soldiers in battle do it all the time when they surrender.

You are describing a relationship with God after a person already believes in God. I'm talking about how they get that belief in the first place. It requires God to act on a person by revealing Himself and granting spiritual wisdom to believe and obey the gospel, this is what being born again is.

“Believe” is something anyone can do, but just “believing” is nothing. 1 Cor. 13: 2 “…if I have a faith that can move mountains, but do not have love, I am nothing.” God gives us this Godly type Love we need.

I see you saying that believing doesn't save a person, but loving people does. If I believe in Christ, that is nothing. But if I love people, then that saves me. Am I reading you right?

Faith extended to anyone one or thing other than God is useless for salvation and we see it in all mature adults (it is not just a mere claim, unless they say it is toward God, when it is not) , but taking that faith and directing it toward God can allow the person to humble themselves to the point of accepting God Charity (Love).

What I am saying is that the unregenerate person who Paul calls the "natural man" can't direct faith toward God, because his natural reasoning doesn't come to the proper conclusion. See Rom. 8:7.

Sorry but the faith itself can be the same, with the object the person is directing their faith to can be different. The God given “faith” given to all mature adults is not the problem, but like all good things God has given man, they can be wastefully used for selfish reasons.

James makes a distinction between wisdom that is of this world, that is, natural reasoning, and wisdom that comes from God, that is, spiritual reasoning. It's not the same. And the faith that each reasoning is based on isn't the same. Therefore, I disagree with you on this matter. Paul makes the distinction between natural and spiritual reasoning in 1 Cor. 2. I think he's clear that the unregenerate person will never believe.

The “seeds” I sow is my life here on earth which will judge me, but if you want to call it “work” go ahead. At the judgement did you give a glass of water to someone in need, because that (work) will judge you.

Again, it sounds like a works-based salvation to me. Either you believe your salvation is merited by your choices or not. Either you believe your salvation is unmerited by anything you do or choose, or not. You can't have it both ways.

Your faith will allow the Spirit to “work” through you doing good stuff, so if the Spirit is not working through you sowing good seed you are lacking in faith.

Again, it sounds like you are describing the Christian life, not how a person gets saved or how they obtain faith to begin with.

No it is not what I believe.

We did not “choose to come to Christ”, but were just willing to accept charity from the being we hate. I did not “choose” to join God/Christ, the wanting to join God/Christ comes after, out of gratitude (Love) for all God has showered upon us.

What's the difference? Being willing to accept charity is the same as coming to Christ, because it is given through Christ and His work. Are you trying to say one becomes willing through a deception that willingness to accept is all it takes? And then once one becomes willing, that the hammer comes down? I just want to be clear about what you're saying. It sure sounds like the virtue of choosing to obey the gospel to me.

You say: “we are naturally inclined to sin”, so are you saying that about Christians, who with the indwelling Holy Spirit and a Godly type Love now have the power not to sin?

The context is the condition of a person before conversion, that's what this OP is about. So the answer is no. I'm talking about before conversion.

You seem to throw everything together to make in one action. While the simple step of just selfishly (nothing good about that) being willing to accept God charity (while God is your enemy) is the step after man’s ability to accept or reject, and the step after accepting is God’s step to shower you with gifts.

I'm saying that the way I read Paul in Rom. 3:10-18 is that no one is willing or will ever be willing to accept God's charity, unless God does something to them first, and that something is regeneration. Titus 3:5. Accepting God's charity requires believing in God.

Your combining everything makes God at fault for all those who go to hell, since God controls their rejecting His help.

Guess what, salvation is a whole deal from God, and He does everything. You can't break it up into pieces as if part done, part not done, or His part done, my part not yet done. The only part incomplete is the sanctification which is present and ongoing, and glorification which is future, and both are done by God. When Paul speaks of being saved by grace through faith in Eph. 2:8, it is the whole deal, and all those aspects go together.

And your idea that it makes God at fault for those going to hell is a false conclusion. It's their fault, and God's justice is exact for them. But it is God's "fault" that some are saved.

No, our “path” does not diverge there, because there are many consecutive forks in the road and not one big combined fork. The one fork I talk about you skip over and avoid addressing and seem to act like it is not there. This is where man makes the autonomous free will choice God has allowed man to make to humble accept or reject God’s Love (charity).

I've said several times before that the idea that man makes an autonomous free will choice to accept God's love is pure fantasy and speculation, and has nothing to do with reality according to Paul in Rom. 3:10-18. You just keep on saying it as if your claim is going to break me down and concede. Our paths really do diverge here, from what I can see. Man's autonomy is the problem, not the solution. The solution to the problem is for God to make us willing slaves by changing the disposition of our hearts. Only then does God change in our eyes from enemy to friend.

Right!! Even if man could accept pure charity does not mean he is saved and in a lot of ways he should not be saved. Like the prodigal son not deserving anything good from his father even an undeserved slave job would be way beyond his previous actions.

The “skid row bum” like it who “accepts charity” can be very much like the servant “accepting” charity form the king in Matt. 18. If the bum is putting on an act for all the wrong motives, he is not truly accepting charity as charity. He is not accepting charity. Jesus presented a truism which is true each time every time all the time: “…he who truly accepts pure charity (forgiveness) as charity of an unbelievable huge dept will automatically obtain an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love)…”. The correct acceptance is required.
And I'm saying that according to Rom. 3:10-18, no one will perform the correct acceptance until God regenerates them. Titus 3:5

Galatians is written to Christians. What verse say: “many in the churches are not born again”? Paul in his letters at the beginning tell you who the letter is addressed to and it is saints, believers, God’s people and really only Christians. Paul never says: “and non-Christians”?

You have to say Paul must be addressing some non-Christians to maintain your doctrine.

Do you claim that everyone today who claims to be a Christian are actually born again?

1 Jn. 2:2 He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.

And Rev. 5:9 And they sang a new song, saying: “You are worthy to take the scroll and to open its seals, because you were slain, and with your blood you purchased for God persons from every tribe and language and people and nation.

Better: “Revelation 5:9 and they sang a new song, saying, “Worthy art thou to take the scroll and to open its seals, for thou waste slain and by thy blood didst ransom men for God from every tribe and tongue and people and nation,”

Rev. 5:9 does not say: “Christ was not the atoning sacrifice for everyone in the world?”

This gets into the huge subject of atonement.

Christ sacrifice is the huge ransom payment, but the kidnapper can refuse to accept the ransom payment, so that child is not set free to enter the Kingdom to be with God, but all the children of the kidnappers who accepted the ransom payment did go to the father.

Briefly and only on the single subject of the ransoming/kidnap scenario:

Christ Crucified is described by Paul, Peter, Jesus, John and the Hebrew writer as a ransom payment (it is not even said to be like a ransom payment, but it was a ransom payment).

I find the ransom description more than just an analogy and an excellent fit and I am not talking about the “Ransom Theory of Atonement”

(The “Ransom Theory of Atonement” has God paying satan the cruel torture, humiliation and murder of Christ but: Does God owe Satan anything? Is there some cosmic “law” saying you have to pay the kidnapper? Would it not be wrong for God to pay satan, if God could just as easily and safely take back His children without paying satan?)



Would a ransom as those in the first century understood it (and it was well known Caesura at 21 had been kidnapped and a ransom paid for him) included the following elements:

1. Someone other than the captive paying the ransom.

2. The payment is a huge sacrificial payment for the payer, who would personally prefer not to pay.

3. Since those that come to God must come as children, it is the children of God that go to the Father.

4. The payer cannot safely or for some other reason get his children any other way than making the payment.

5. The kidnapper is totally undeserving.

6. The kidnapper can accept or reject the payment.

We can agree on most of the parts with the atonement process being just like a ransom experience: The children of God be held out of the kingdom; Deity making the huge sacrificial payment; Christ’s torture, humiliation and murder on the cross being the payment; and the freedom given the child to enter the kingdom after the ransom is paid. But who is this unworthy kidnapper God will pay to release His children?

We can only come to our Father as children, so who is keeping the nonbeliever in the unbelieving state (who is this kidnapper)?

You are not trying to get the nonbelieving sinner to accept a book, a theology, a doctrine or a message, but Jesus Christ and Him crucified, but Jesus Christ and Him crucified is described in scripture as the ransom payment?

If the nonbelieving sinner accepts Jesus Christ and Him crucified (the ransom payment) a child will be set free to enter the Kingdom, but if the nonbeliever refuses to accept Christ (the ransom payment) a child is kept from the kingdom. So does that not sound like a ransom scenario?

There is the one ransom, but could there be many unworthy kidnappers holding the children of God back?

If the kidnapper does accept the payment has he/she done something worthy or virtually criminal?

Look at a real “Christ crucified” sermon of Peter in Acts 2 and he says nothing about Christ taking our place on the cross.

That is just an introduction to think about.


To be continued

I'm more into what scripture actually says than all this reasoning. In John 10, Jesus said "I lay down my life for the sheep." For the sheep, not for the goats. Later He says "you do not believe because you are not my sheep." So here we have the doctrine of limited atonement. It's not by virtue, since it is worthy of much more. But the limitation is by design, by God's choice "for the sheep." It implies that it is not for others.

This is written by the same author as 1 Jn. 2:2. So I think you need to prove that your interpretation of this verse doesn't contradict John 10.
TD:)
 
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tdidymas

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Only what scripture actually teaches is the third option... Not that we can make ourselves born again, with that we can choose to rely on God or not, every step of the way.
Relying on God is what born again people do, not the unregenerate. The OP is talking about how we get started, not about how we continue once we have started.
TD:)
 
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renniks

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Relying on God is what born again people do, not the unregenerate. The OP is talking about how we get started, not about how we continue once we have started.
TD:)
The only way to be born again is to rely on God.

and My people who are called by My name humble themselves and pray and seek My face and turn from their wicked ways, then I will hear from heaven, will forgive their sin and will heal their land.
 
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Hammster

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The only way to be born again is to rely on God.

and My people who are called by My name humble themselves and pray and seek My face and turn from their wicked ways, then I will hear from heaven, will forgive their sin and will heal their land.
God is taking to Israel about Israel.
 
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tdidymas

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Could that work both ways?
What did I do wrong in interpreting the ransom?
People claim all the time that their particular way of interpreting scripture best fits in the context of scripture. Each person has to determine that for himself, if they are to have any confidence that they understand what they are reading. But examine my explanation of how Jesus taught limited atonement in John 10 above. I'll be waiting for your response on that.

I'm trying to understand you:

You said: “You do not “lose your salvation”, you cannot, but you can give it up to go back to pursuing the perceived pleasures of sin for a season. Sin can draw you back. ” and

You can give it up to go back to pursuing the perceived pleasures of sin for a season. Sin can draw you back and if you quench the Spirit long enough unselfish Godly type Love loses its appeal.

I’d like to know what you mean by this. Are you advocating that born again Christians can live a carnal life and still be saved? What is your meaning in these statements?

Can a person quench the Spirit?
Yes.

I agree with: “A person's choice to follow Christ is the result of God's work in them”, yes when you accept God’s shower of wonderful gifts, one working in you as it is Godly type Love, you will choose to follow Christ out of gratitude (Love).

You seem to be agreeing with the idea that “free will” choice to follow Christ is the result of God’s work in a person. But I’m also saying that choice is based on our faith in God, which God gives us as a free gift. Do you agree that belief is also God’s work, or is this where our paths diverge? (Jn. 6:29)

With your scenario the shot gun wedding fits, since the free gift of saving grace comes before the ability to accept that gift, so it is forced on you (it is not your choice at the time), but afterwards you can accept. With a shotgun wedding you might later like the bride you got, but it was not your choice to begin with.
Ok, I concede on this point. I did experience this with God initially. I was not going to become a Christian, but God held a “shotgun” to my head, and I surrendered. It was later that I started to see His love as desirable, and I became a willing participant. But this fits my interpretation more than yours, I think.

Here is a brief explanation of Ro. 9:
Romans 9
Paul uses two teaching methods throughout Romans even secular philosophy classes will use Romans as the best example of these methods. Paul does an excellent job of building one premise on the previous premises to develop his final conclusions. Paul uses an ancient form of rhetoric known as diatribe (imaginary debate) asking questions and most of the time giving a strong “By no means” and then goes on to explain “why not”. Paul’s method goes beyond just a general diatribe and follows closely to the diatribes used in the individual laments in the Psalms and throughout the Old Testament, which the Jewish Christians would have known extensively. These “questions or comments” are given by an “imaginary” student making it more a dialog with the readers (students) and not just a “sermon”.



The main topic repeated extensively in Romans is the division in the Christian house churches in Rome between the Jews and Gentile Christians. You can just look up how many times Jews and gentiles are referred to see this as a huge issue.



The main question (a diatribe question) in Romans 9 Paul addresses is God being fair or just Rms. 9: 14 What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!



This will take some explaining, since just prior in Romans 9, Paul went over some history of God’s dealings with the Israelites that sounds very “unjust” like “loving Jacob and hating Esau” before they were born, but remember in all of Paul’s diatribes he begins before, just after or before and just after with strong support for the wrong answer (this makes it more of a debate and giving the opposition the first shot as done in all diatribes).

Who in Rome would be having a “problem” with God choosing to work with Isaac and Jacob instead of Ishmael and Esau? Would the Jewish Christian have a problem with this or would it be the Gentile Christians?

If God treaded you as privileged and special would you have a problem or would you have a problem if you were treated seemingly as common and others were treated with honor for no apparent reason?

This is the issue and Paul will explain over the rest of Romans 9-11.

Paul is specific with the issue Rms. 9: 19 One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who is able to resist his will?”

The Jews were created in a special honorable position that would bring forth the Messiah and everyone else was common in comparison (the Gentiles).

How do we know Paul is specifically addressing the Jew/Gentile issue? Rms. 9: 30 What then shall we say? That the Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, have obtained it, a righteousness that is by faith; 31 but the people of Israel, who pursued the law as the way of righteousness, have not attained their goal. 32 Why not? Because they pursued it not by faith but as if it were by works. They stumbled over the stumbling stone.

Paul is showing from the position of being made “common” vessels by God the Gentiles had an advantage over the born Israelites (vessels of honor) that had the Law, since the Law became a stumbling stone to them. They both needed faith to rely on God’s Love to forgive them.

Without going into the details of Romans 9-11 we conclude with this diatribe question: Romans 11: 11 Again I ask: Did they stumble so as to fall beyond recovery? Not at all! Rather, because of their transgression, salvation has come to the Gentiles to make Israel envious. 12 But if their transgression means riches for the world, and their loss means riches for the Gentiles, how much greater riches will their full inclusion bring!



The common vessels (gentiles) and the vessels of honor (Jews) are equal individually in what is really significant when it comes to salvation, so God is not being unjust or unfair with either group.



If there is still a question about who is being addressed in this section of Rms. 9-11, Paul tells us: Rms. 11: 13 I am talking to you Gentiles. Inasmuch as I am the apostle to the Gentiles, I take pride in my ministry 14 in the hope that I may somehow arouse my own people to envy and save some of them.



Rm 9: 22 What if God, although choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath—prepared for destruction?



This verse is not saying all the “vessels” created for a “common purpose” were created for destruction (they were not made from the start by the Potter “clay pigeons”). Everything that leaves the potter’s shop is of great quality. Those vessels for destruction can come from either the common group or the honor group, but God is being patient with them that will eventually be destroyed. The vessels God does develop great wrath against, will be readied for destruction, but how did they become worthy of destruction since they left the potter’s shop with his mark on them? Any vessel (honorable or common) that becomes damaged is not worthy of the potters signature and He would want it destroyed.

To understand this as Common vessels and special vessels look at the same idea using the same Greek words of Paul in 2 Tim 2: 20. There Paul even points out the common can become the honored vessel.

That is a short explanation, since you really need to study all of Romans especially chapters 9, 10 and 11. Also please look at individual laments in the Psalms and diatribes in general, I really cut those short.

The Jews were given a higher position on earth, but with that position came added responsibility which they poorly handled. I do not see them in Rome having any advantage over the gentile Christians, but what do you think?

Is this your explanation, or did you get it from someone else? What I see wrong with it is the fact that he defines the vessels of honor as “even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews only, but also from among Gentiles.” So then, this passage is not about Jews vs. Gentiles, but about the saved vs. not saved.

Those who have sinned.
“All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.” So, I can’t see your point in calling sinners “mature adults.”

It is up to you to just be willing to humbly accept the gift since it is not something you even have to reach down to get.
Willingness to accept the gift comes after the gift is given in this case, since willingness to accept requires belief.

I am not saying: “sin is good or God desires for us to sin”, but like lots tragedies that happen in our life good can and should come from it. They are opportunities to learn and will later be added to our witness as we change.
Well, one could argue that God planned a world containing evil and sin, so that He could display the glory of His grace to those whom He loves. Evil and sin then would be obstacles to faith in God, in which only those chosen would overcome. Some do argue this, and still say it doesn’t make God the author of evil or sin. We know that God is not the author of sin, since James says it. So we would have to resolve the problem of where sin came from, even if God made the world where sin exists. We do know that God caused physical breakdown and decay, since Paul wrote “For the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly, but by reason of him who hath subjected the same in hope” (Rom. 8:20).

But I had to ask that question because earlier you said something about Adam and Eve partaking of the tree of knowledge of good and evil having a knowledge that somehow improved their life. Are you of that opinion?

Not “all people” are like that all the time, since their conscience for at least a while is burdened from in the past hurting others.

I don’t get this from Rom. 3:10-18 regarding relationship with God. Conscience toward God’s commands requires faith that the unregenerate don’t have.



Again, "the mind set on the flesh cannot please God.", but that does not mean you cannot for selfish reasons (being selfish is never pleasing to God) can’t humbly accept pure charity from God, later on after God showers them with gifts they can obey.



Not sure what you’re after here. Are you describing part of a process where God begins working on a soul before that person is regenerated?



I fully agree, but we disagree on the timing of God’s free gift which causes them to obey and the timing of the ability to extend a very small amount of faith toward God. I am saying salvation comes after: “they of their own free will are just willing to accept charity from the being they are hating” and you are saying it is thrust upon them (forced upon them) while they are not willing to accept God’s help (charity). The scriptures you use to support your conclusion showing the timing of this first general faith given all mature adults and that the gifts that allow a person to obey happen before a willingness to accept charity.
I think there is a problem with your logic here. Willingness to accept charity from God requires faith in God. Without faith, no one can willingly accept anything. James is clear about this.

God is wanting additional individuals willing to humble accept His charity (Love) of their own free will and thus of their own free will Love with a Godly type Love, Him back. Godly type Love is not something programmed into the individual or God, but requires free will choice.

Again, it looks to me like you are describing someone already in relationship with God, already believing, already living the Christian life (or trying to). I’m talking about how a person gets the faith in the first place, which is what the OP is about.

Would you prefer to be Loved by a spouse who had no choice but to Love you or be Loved by a spouse who had many other likely choices, but of her/his own free will chose to Love you?
What I would prefer of these choices doesn’t prove that men don’t need God to interrupt their life and change their heart before they will believe and repent, or “accept God’s charity.”

Paul is talking to Christians. A nonbelieving sinner is selfish, so his/her faith is not faithfulness, but a weak trust type faith in Love (God/Christ being Love). The nonbelieving sinner is not righteous by definition, so is Paul talking about faithfulness, saving faith, or just general faith (which all people have).
Everyone claiming to be a Christian are considered Christians. It doesn’t mean they are all born again, since Jesus gave us the parables of the wheat and tares, and of the sheep and goats.
TD:)
 
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Hammster

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So God doesn't forgive anyone elses sins if they repent?
I didn’t say that. I’m just telling you that this was God talking to His chosen people about a specific situation.

Scripture can’t mean what it never meant.
 
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tdidymas

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The only way to be born again is to rely on God.

and My people who are called by My name humble themselves and pray and seek My face and turn from their wicked ways, then I will hear from heaven, will forgive their sin and will heal their land.

This verse is about blessing the nation, not about personal salvation.
TD:)
 
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renniks

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I didn’t say that. I’m just telling you that this was God talking to His chosen people about a specific situation.

Scripture can’t mean what it never meant.
We are God's chosen people. The promises given to Israel are for all believers.
 
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