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Does God Love Sinners?

bling

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The picture is God IS love and because He is that love naturally goes out to His creation in many ways the chief of which is that He sustains them even in their rebellion against Him. All experience God's goodness because of His love nature.

However do NOT mistake that general love for all His creation with the love God has for His elect saints which He makes quite clear. That love began before time and resulted in God's care and protection of them in and from the womb, the intercession of Christ on their behalf, and the effectual grace to receive Christ. They receive loving tender instruction in faith, holiness, and the death of the self life. They will endure to the end.

John 17:23

New King James Version (NKJV)

23 I in them, and You in Me; that they may be made perfect in one, and that the world may know that You have sent Me, and have loved them as You have loved Me.

Who did Jesus not Love while here on earth? If God and Christ are one would God not also Love everyone like Christ Loved everyone?

Psalm 5:6

New King James Version (NKJV)

6 You shall destroy those who speak falsehood;
The Lord abhors the bloodthirsty and deceitful man.

Paul did some pretty “bloodthirsty things” and deceitful stuff so did the Lord abhor him?

David did some deceitful and “bloodthirsty” stuff so did God abhor him?


Leviticus 20:23

New King James Version (NKJV)

23 And you shall not walk in the statutes of the nation which I am casting out before you; for they commit all these things, and therefore I abhor them.


Is God talking about a nation or individuals and would this mean every person in that nation?



Leviticus 26:30

New King James Version (NKJV)

30 I will destroy your high places, cut down your incense altars, and cast your carcasses on the lifeless forms of your idols;
and My soul shall abhor you.

This describes the Jewish nation many times in their life, so did God not save any Jews?
 
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cygnusx1

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Who did Jesus not Love while here on earth? If God and Christ are one would God not also Love everyone like Christ Loved everyone?
True , there is no division in the trinity , Christ loved even His enemies and taught us to do likewise .


Paul did some pretty “bloodthirsty things” and deceitful stuff so did the Lord abhor him?

David did some deceitful and “bloodthirsty” stuff so did God abhor him?

We were "By nature children of wrath " past tense


Is God talking about a nation or individuals and would this mean every person in that nation?




This describes the Jewish nation many times in their life, so did God not save any Jews?

Romans 11 = Gods love of the Jews .
 
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lesjude

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Who did Jesus not Love while here on earth? If God and Christ are one would God not also Love everyone like Christ Loved everyone?
Jesus showed God's unconditional love in that He healed, delivered all that came to Him. However you will notice that the elect disciples were treated quite differently in that they were give power, personal access and attention nearly 24/7. He also only prayed for those and the elect in the future that would be saved. John 17:9 and 20-26.
Actually Christians are to heal, deliver, and bless the saved and unsaved at every opportunity the Holy Spirit gives them just as Jesus did. Mark 16:17-18 and Matthew 10:7-8. He loves His elect unconditionally and expects them to do the same to all unconditionally.


Paul did some pretty “bloodthirsty things” and deceitful stuff so did the Lord abhor him?

David did some deceitful and “bloodthirsty” stuff so did God abhor him?
The Lord loves His elect while they are sinners. The cliche love the sinner, hate the sin only applies to the elect.




Is God talking about a nation or individuals and would this mean every person in that nation?




This describes the Jewish nation many times in their life, so did God not save any Jews?
A nation is made up of individual people. God has His elect among the Jews but the number was FEW as the Bible indicates. The Bible mentions elect among nations that were condemned to hatred or total annihilation: Rahab, Ruth, the Samaritans, Naaman, the widow of Zarephath to list some.
 
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jasonsloss

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Fine, but who determines how "God sees [God]self"? You surely realize that you are as guilty of "boxing" God as everyone else? So we can put that red herring to rest.



How is Scripture "clear" about this? It is "clear" to you because you have chosen to interpret it that way. I do not, and have already given my reasons why such a notion does not produce a consistent picture of the eternal nature and being of God.

Proverbs 6:16-19...
16 These six things the Lord hates, Yes, seven are an abomination to Him: 17 A proud look, A lying tongue, Hands that shed innocent blood, 18 A heart that devises wicked plans, Feet that are swift in running to evil, 19 A false witness who speaks lies, And one who sows discord among brethren.

Psalm 11:5 NKJV
The Lord tests the righteous, But the wicked and the one who loves violence His soul hates.

Deuteronomy 16:22 NKJV
You shall not set up a sacred pillar, which the Lord your God hates.

does this help with clarity???
 
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rogueapologist

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Proverbs 6:16-19...
16 These six things the Lord hates, Yes, seven are an abomination to Him: 17 A proud look, A lying tongue, Hands that shed innocent blood, 18 A heart that devises wicked plans, Feet that are swift in running to evil, 19 A false witness who speaks lies, And one who sows discord among brethren.

Psalm 11:5 NKJV
The Lord tests the righteous, But the wicked and the one who loves violence His soul hates.

Deuteronomy 16:22 NKJV
You shall not set up a sacred pillar, which the Lord your God hates.

does this help with clarity???


Hmm, not really. I don't take the anthropomorphizing of God by religious writers as "clarity".
 
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jasonsloss

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I believe the Scriptures are divinely inspired. I don't think that every word attributed to God, however, is from the mouth of God.

2 Timothy 3:16 NKJV

All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

so then this passage of scripture is untrue then???
 
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rogueapologist

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jasonsloss said:
2 Timothy 3:16 NKJV

All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

so then this passage of scripture is untrue then???

Why would it be untrue in my perspective?
 
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bling

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Jesus showed God's unconditional love in that He healed, delivered all that came to Him. However you will notice that the elect disciples were treated quite differently in that they were give power, personal access and attention nearly 24/7.
Judas was part of that group, so was Judas part of the elect?

The “difference” I see in the way the 12 were treated has nothing to do with being treated better and had everything to do with being the first to be led by Christ. We are all allowed to be led by Christ in an even better way by having His Spirit dwell within us. That is available to any mature adult.
He also only prayed for those and the elect in the future that would be saved. John 17:9 and 20-26.
Jesus prayed for those that crucified him.
Actually Christians are to heal, deliver, and bless the saved and unsaved at every opportunity the Holy Spirit gives them just as Jesus did. Mark 16:17-18 and Matthew 10:7-8. He loves His elect unconditionally and expects them to do the same to all unconditionally.
So you are saying: “We are called upon to Love elect and non-elect unconditionally, but Christ as our greatest example only Loved the elect?”
The Lord loves His elect while they are sinners. The cliche love the sinner, hate the sin only applies to the elect.
Prior to being saved what is the difference between unsaved people and unsaved elect?
If there is no difference then why would anyone love one over the other?


A nation is made up of individual people. God has His elect among the Jews but the number was FEW as the Bible indicates. The Bible mentions elect among nations that were condemned to hatred or total annihilation: Rahab, Ruth, the Samaritans, Naaman, the widow of Zarephath to list some.
OK, so we know a lot of these negative “judgments” are brought against nations, but does not mean every individual in that nation. God abhors sin and sinful nations, but can God still Love an individual in that nation or even the one that committed the sin?
 
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lesjude

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Judas was part of that group, so was Judas part of the elect?
Obviously not. Judas was a type of the believer who fulfills the parable of the sower. Believeing or being born again does not necessarily mean one is elect.
The “difference” I see in the way the 12 were treated has nothing to do with being treated better and had everything to do with being the first to be led by Christ. We are all allowed to be led by Christ in an even better way by having His Spirit dwell within us. That is available to any mature adult.
The latter is a nice sentiment but the indwelling Holy Spirit is only followed by the elect. The others end up grieving Him, not allowing Him to train them in Bible faith, and/or not allowing Him to put the self life to death. Worse is those who say Acts 2:4 has "passed away" or speaking in tongues is demonic.

It seems most do not even want the Acts 2:4 experience with the initial evidence of speaking in new tongues as the Spirit gives them the utterance. They do not even understand the difference between the gift of tongues with interpretation to edify the assembly and the use/purpose of their own personal prayer language.

Water baptism of at the age of understanding by immersion in Jesus name is also resisted.

If one opposes/resists these things no one can say they are not saved. However the Bible gives no assurance of salvation to those who willfully disobey these clear COMMANDS of Christ. Note the response of the believers in Acts 19:1-6. This is the heart attitude of the elect.

Jesus prayed for those that crucified him.
There must have been some elect among the murderers because clearly there could be no general pardon for all those responsible.
So you are saying: “We are called upon to Love elect and non-elect unconditionally, but Christ as our greatest example only Loved the elect?”
No, please read what I said again. Christ healed, delivered, preached and taught as part of the general call of the gospel to everyone. We are to do the same for all at every opportunity the Holy Spirit gives. Because they receive these blessings, or even get born again does not mean they are elect. We do NOT know who is elect and who is not and have no need to know. There can be a word of knowledge that someone is reprobate and to stop working with them. God told Moses that several times.

God's love for His elect is quite different. He gives them ALL things 1 Corinthians 3:21-23 because they are heirs and joint heirs with Christ Romans 8:17.
Prior to being saved what is the difference between unsaved people and unsaved elect?
If there is no difference then why would anyone love one over the other?
There is no outward difference that man can see. From God's side He preserves them, sends His angels to watch over them, Jesus is continually making intercession for them, He puts it on Christians hearts to intercede for them, many are claimed for salvation on the basis of the promise in Acts 16:31, God is at work in their hearts breaking down thought patterns that resist the gospel, they are assured of hearing and receiving the effectual call of the gospel.
God can put a supernatural gift of love in believers' hearts for certain unsaved elect. Sometimes it is the only thing that allows one to stand them. Jesus often reminds us that he loved us while we were still sinners. However some He will not allow time to be wasted on them. They can just move on out of one's life.
This does not mean they are not elect but it simply means you have done all that was given you to do.

OK, so we know a lot of these negative “judgments” are brought against nations, but does not mean every individual in that nation. God abhors sin and sinful nations, but can God still Love an individual in that nation or even the one that committed the sin?
God has His elect in every nation and loves them while they are sinners. He cares for them as well as I have said above.
 
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jasonsloss

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Why would it be untrue in my perspective?

this is what I am trying to understand from you... you say God's word is inspired by God but then you say that you do not believe all scripture comes from God's mouth sort of speak...

do you understand that when it says inspired by God it is the same as Him speaking???
 
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rogueapologist

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this is what I am trying to understand from you... you say God's word is inspired by God but then you say that you do not believe all scripture comes from God's mouth sort of speak...

do you understand that when it says inspired by God it is the same as Him speaking???

I don't understand inspiration as that at all. While that is certainly one view of "inspiration" of Scripture, there are many others.
 
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jasonsloss

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I don't understand inspiration as that at all. While that is certainly one view of "inspiration" of Scripture, there are many others.

okay but this is the only view that is true... if you study the biblical definitions of inspiration in both the Old Testament and the New Testament you will find the definition "divinely guided"... this is the only biblical definition based off the translations that is correct...
 
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rogueapologist

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okay but this is the only view that is true... if you study the biblical definitions of inspiration in both the Old Testament and the New Testament you will find the definition "divinely guided"... this is the only biblical definition based off the translations that is correct...

But surely you see that your definition is circular. You're defining the nature of inspiration by appealing to particular Scriptures, which you presuppose to be inspired in the way you understand inspiration, which lends support to your definition of inspiration, which is based upon...and on and on.

While you are entitled to your opinion about inspiration, there's no way that you can establish the "truth" of your opinion by appealing to the Scriptures, since your view of them already presupposes your opinion about inspiration.
 
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lesjude

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okay but this is the only view that is true... if you study the biblical definitions of inspiration in both the Old Testament and the New Testament you will find the definition "divinely guided"... this is the only biblical definition based off the translations that is correct...
2 Timothy 3:16New King James Version (NKJV)

16 All Scripture is given by *inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,


*The Greek is not inspiration but is theopneustos which means expiration, to breath out. God breathed out His Holy word.

God moved on men to write what He breathed out. God did not endow men with inspiration and then sanctify what they wrote. The scriptures are the very words of God which are divine and infallible.
 
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jasonsloss

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But surely you see that your definition is circular. You're defining the nature of inspiration by appealing to particular Scriptures, which you presuppose to be inspired in the way you understand inspiration, which lends support to your definition of inspiration, which is based upon...and on and on.

While you are entitled to your opinion about inspiration, there's no way that you can establish the "truth" of your opinion by appealing to the Scriptures, since your view of them already presupposes your opinion about inspiration.

no my view is not secular it is based off of scripture translations of both Greek and Hebrew... if the scripture use of inspiration translates out as divinely guided then this is what they said back then... even great historian writers of the New Testament times have said that these men were clearly divinely guided and moved to preach the Gospel...
 
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jasonsloss

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2 Timothy 3:16New King James Version (NKJV)

16 All Scripture is given by *inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,


*The Greek is not inspiration but is theopneustos which means expiration, to breath out. God breathed out His Holy word.

God moved on men to write what He breathed out. God did not endow men with inspiration and then sanctify what they wrote. The scriptures are the very words of God which are divine and infallible.

I agree
 
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rogueapologist

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no my view is not secular it is based off of scripture translations of both Greek and Hebrew... if the scripture use of inspiration translates out as divinely guided then this is what they said back then... even great historian writers of the New Testament times have said that these men were clearly divinely guided and moved to preach the Gospel...

I said your argument was "circular" not "secular", meaning that you prove your point by a never-ending circle of self-referential proofs.

"Why are the Scriptures inspired"?
"Because they say they are."
"And how do you know that this self-assertion is true"?
"Because the Scriptures are inspired".

You see the circularity?
 
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jasonsloss

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I said your argument was "circular" not "secular", meaning that you prove your point by a never-ending circle of self-referential proofs.

"Why are the Scriptures inspired"?
"Because they say they are."
"And how do you know that this self-assertion is true"?
"Because the Scriptures are inspired".

You see the circularity?
yes I see what you mean but my belief that the scriptures are inspired by God are based off my belief in Christ and my faith in the Gospel...
 
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