That may be so, I don't know practically anything about hindusim, but this is how far i understand it from the bible! I didnt quote hinduism or buddah! And of course, it would be foolish of me to counter any idea i got from the bible JUST because it is also believed by non bible readers.
Hey, now! I am trying to understand what you are saying, i haven't as far as i know mentioned science just reffered to scripture, maybe i am guilty of trying to make him "more understandable" or what ever, but at least it should be possible to understand something that si written about in the bible?
Im simply asking how can god be omnipresent if he has nothing to do with this creation? I had no problem with saying he doesn recide or live anywhere since he is everywhere, but you said "is no way a piece or part of the universe He made"...
Now HOW can he in no way be part of the universe he made if he is omnipresent? Is there any where god is not? Is there any part of creation that exists outside of God?
I dont see how my view of literal omnipresent is "eastern" philosophy and not firmly sourced in scrpiture. Pls explain it.
I havent mentioned pantheism! But if pantheism means god is omnipresent then it must be true or the bible is wrong. Or is there places where god is not?
Then i think i finally start to see that this is not possible to explain?
But isnt that a parapharse from the several bible verses? Like ef 4:6 "one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all." or 1 cor 15:28: "the Son also Himself be subject unto Him, that God may be all in all."
Maybe im too stupid or was dropped on my head when i was a baby, but i have no problem believing this is absolutely true - that the whole of who he is is omnipresent. I wouldnt argue against or claim i understood it, but to say otherwise would deny his omnipresence IMO.
I wouldnt RESTRICT god to the rules of a three dimentional creation, but i also wouldnt deny he is omnipresent. I have no åproblems accepting he is both, but i can not deny omnipresence.
Id say, no, it would line up with the claim that "christ in us, the hope of glory" is literally true. How could only a part of god or a part of christ in us be more in line with pauls teaching than "christ in us" himself, meaning all of him. He is god the word. Isnt literally "the kingdom" within as jesus said, or just a part? Did jesus promse with the spirit would both the father and the son live with us, or just part of him parsed out to all? It may be eastern mysticism, but i DONT see how it denies the very basic teaching of omnipresence that runs troughout all the bible.
So, if its true that i am "one spirit with the lord", i shouldnt align my mind with that teaching despite it making me feel better? I got my view as far as i can see it from the bible. Of course, you woudl udnerstand, if you can not convince me of otherwise, i would definitly align my mind with my "oneness" with God, who is in me. If i claimed go is not in me, and thjat i am not one spirit with him, how can i call myself a believer, these are all bible verses from pauls teaching. Someone must convince me that they are wrong, if i should deny them and stopped believe them, and so far, i dont see anyone doing that
Dude, noone has talked about hindusim, yoga, panteism or anything like that, You all bhrought that up. I am literally only refering to the bible, i have LOADS of verses i cant get away from about this, both from the beginning of the bible, from the teachings of jesus, and from the letters of the apostels. All trough them i see the teaching of a omnipresent god that manfiested this world trough the word, which is god from the beginning, and this same word became flesh, but the message when he came wasnt that the kingdom once would come into this world, but that it is already here, in fact not only among us, but "within you", can he said that even to the pharasees that killed him. Then paul teaches the same thing, and so my questino still is the same, is there anywhere god IS NOT?