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Does God give grace to everyone?

tonychanyt

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2T 1:

9 [God] saved us and called us to a holy calling, not because of our works but because of his own purpose and grace, which he gave us in Christ Jesus before the ages began,
Dr James White said:

Why would grace have to be given except to individuals who are in needs of grace?
  1. Grace, by definition, is unserved.
  2. Everyone is in needs of grace.
Therefore, God gives grace to everyone who knows Jesus' good news and those to don't.

Now, let's focus on saving grace which is the context of this verse.

This is where Christian salvation becomes a depersonalize concept
No, in fact, grace can be personalized.

when you simply cannot allow the idea that God would choose to give his grace, his undeserved grace,
Emphases added. White contradicted himself.

to rebel sinners in eternity past, but that is the direct assertion of 2 Timothy 1:9.
No, in fact, the string 'rebel sinners' does not even appear in 2T 1:9. It asserts that God gives his saving grace to us/believers.

Let proposition P1 = God gives saving grace to rebel sinners.

Does 2T 1:9 assert P1?

No, it neither assert nor deny P1.

Dr White was not thinking logically in terms of first-order logic. He jumped to a conclusion.

Whether we are a rebel sinners or not and whether we have heard of Jesus or not, we all need God's saving grace.
 

BukiRob

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I can only speak anecdotally, but most Christians have a Santa Claus mentality or insurance policy mentality with God. Few spend time in the Word and in a relationship with Christ. He will spew that out of his mouth because you have 1 foot in the world and 1 foot in a relationship with Adonia.

If you are walking in WILFUL sin, Grace is removed from you because you are profaning Christ's sacrifice WILFULLY. Why do you think the MAIN theme in scripture from Genesis to Revelation is sexual immorality? Why do you think Paul says WORK OUT YOUR SALVATION with Fear and Trembling?? I am NOT Eastern Orthodox but their view on salvation in my opinion, is spot on... I am in NO position to judge ANYONE but what I can say is if you are walking in open rebellion, well, I certainly wouldn't want to be in that position and die.
 
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BukiRob

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This is EXACLY what Ive been saying Believers are not spending enough time in the word. Hebrews 10:26 For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins
 
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tonychanyt

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This is EXACLY what Ive been saying Believers are not spending enough time in the word. Hebrews 10:26 For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins
The string 'grace' is not in He 10:26.
 
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tonychanyt

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BukiRob

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The string 'grace' is not in He 10:26.
Are you SO OBTUSE that you can not understand that GRACE is the sacrifice... Bro you need to spend time in scripture because your grasp of it is EXTREMELY weak
 
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d taylor

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God's grace is available to everyone, just like God's free gift of Eternal Life is. But not everyone will experience God's grace, just as not everyone will receive God's free gift of Eternal Life. Because they do not believe in Jesus.
 
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jacks

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Does God give grace to everyone?

You're probably familiar with the Wesleyan doctrine on grace.

In Wesleyan theology, grace is understood to work in three stages: prevenient, justifying, and sanctifying. Prevenient grace precedes conversion, justifying grace occurs at the moment of conversion when an individual is reconciled to God, and sanctifying grace continues to work in the life of the believer, transforming them into the likeness of Christ.

So everyone receives at least "prevenient" grace.
 
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tonychanyt

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WILFUL sin? Tony, in ethics, an intentional (wilful) act is seen as stronger (worse) than an unintentional (unwilful) act.
You need to relate that to grace. That's the issue of this OP.
 
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Maori Aussie

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You need to relate that to grace. That's the issue of this OP.
Romans 6:15-16 Tony. The numeral 16 between verses 15 and 16 is not in the original manuscripts. In other words, the verses are part of a connected narrative. Originally, I was thinking of referring to the preceding 14 verses too, as they provide a prelude to the assertion.
Oh. "In actual Greek texts from the era when Koine Greek was used as a day-to-day language, Greek was usually written with no punctuation". So, you may wish to check if the full stop (period) between verses 15 and 16 appear in the ancient manuscripts too...
 
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tonychanyt

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Romans 6:15-16 Tony. The numeral 16 between verses 15 and 16 is not in the original manuscripts. In other words, the verses are part of a connected narrative. Originally, I was thinking of referring to the preceding 14 verses too, as they provide a prelude to the assertion.
Oh. "In actual Greek texts from the era when Koine Greek was used as a day-to-day language, Greek was usually written with no punctuation". So, you may wish to check if the full stop (period) between verses 15 and 16 appear in the ancient manuscripts too...


You need to explicitly relate the explanation to grace. This is the last time I have asked. That's the issue of this OP.
 
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Maori Aussie

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I did not respond to the OP. I responded to Post #3, where you asked for a verse. Here it is with zero punctuation:
"Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace Certainly not Do you not know that to whom you present yourselves slaves to obey you are that one’s slaves whom you obey whether of sin leading to death or of obedience leading to righteousness"
 
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Sabertooth

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Does God give grace to everyone?
"...I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.”
Exodus 33:19 NKJV​
“God resists the proud,
But gives grace to the humble.” James 4:6 NKJV
 
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Spiritual Jew

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You need to relate that to grace. That's the issue of this OP.
Hebrews 10:26 If we deliberately keep on sinning after we have received the knowledge of the truth, no sacrifice for sins is left, 27 but only a fearful expectation of judgment and of raging fire that will consume the enemies of God.

We are saved by grace through faith, right (Eph 2:8-9)? This passage says that if we go back to deliberately and willingly sinning after we are saved, then that would suggest we have lost our faith and we will lose our salvation and then have "only a fearful expectation of judgment and of raging fire that will consume the enemies of God.". So, if we're saved by grace and then lose our salvation, then grace will have been removed from us because of our willful rebellion.
 
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