de Unamuno said:
Reformationist,
I see you're point. We disagree as to the nature of God.
I agree. I think we vary on our understanding of man's fallen nature as well.
It seems the Predestinationalist (word?) view denies some of the basic tenets of my theology. Keep in mind that my theology is not totally reliant on scripture, so I am somewhat immune to your kryptonite versus:
1) God, in Trinitarian form, exists as a perfect, self-contained entity of love. It is from that love, not an unfathomable or suspect wrath, that He created man.
I agree with this. I don't think love was the only motivation but I believe it was equally as predominant. I think God's desire for glory also motivated Him.
2) He created man with true free will, meaning man retains the capacity to choose God or to not choose God... or in a broader (but lesser) sense, to choose God's morality (this leaves at least some hope for non-Christians, for example), but a Catholic would never claim guaranteed salvation for himself, let alone a non-Christian.
As to this, let me clarify that the reformed view, in case you're not familiar with it, is that man is
naturally free to choose to either accept or reject the Lordship of Christ. Due to the Fall, however, he is
morally enslaved to sin and therefore not free to submit to Christ. I think the Bible is clear about this in many places. For instance:
John 6:44
No one
can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day.
Romans 8:7
Because the carnal mind is enmity against God; for it is not subject to the law of God, nor indeed
can be.
1 Corinthians 2:14
But the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; nor
can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.
3) God is omnipotent, and is not hindered by man's free will, but allows it and is glorified by it.
I would agree with this. I do have one question though. If man's will must be
allowed to be free then it's not really completely free, wouldn't you say? You don't believe that man's will is autonomous, do you? It's still subject to God, right?
The context of Romans 9 is that Paul needed to assuage the fears of the gentiles that God's chosen people, the Jews, were not saved per God's original promise to them. This seemingly unkept promise threatened even the gentiles who claimed to believe in God but seemed to have no guarantees of salvation. That is the prime motivator for Chapter 9. Not to support a false claim to total and absolute divine predestination, but to point out that God, in his omnipotence, had the power to lift some up and to push some down in order to show example (e.g. Pharaoh). He does not say "all", nor should the chapter be interpreted in such a way. By Paul's saying we cannot choose God, he is talking about having the ability to choose to accept or reject him, the gift of free will. God, through his mercy, must first grant us that gift to choose, or he revokes it to make special points. It is not a two bucket scenario of people he damns or people he saves.
Okay. Let's see. What you're saying is that the Gentiles feared for their salvation because they believed the Jews, who were God's chosen and holy nation, weren't saved? In essence, if the Jews weren't saved, how could the Gentiles be, right? So, you're contending that God will override the free will of some people, e.g., Pharaoh, to prove a "special point" but He does not do this with everyone? And what is that point, that we are helpless in our fallen state and that without His grace we are incapable of choosing Him?
Let me get this straight. In the first section (vv. 1-5) Paul is lamenting the fact that his countrymen "according to the flesh," i.e., the Israelites, God's covenant people, "to whom pertain the adoption, the glory, the covenants, the giving of the law, the service of God, and the promises" have rejected the Savior. Are we okay at this point?
Then, in vv. 6-9, Paul reassures us that it's not that God's word hasn't had the effect that He intended it to have. On the contrary, "they are not all Israel who are of Israel, nor are they all children because they are the seed of Abraham; but, In Isaac your seed shall be called." So, essentially, Paul has just told us that just because someone is born, of the flesh, into the covenenant community of God's people, the Israelites, that isn't what gives them a place in God's family. Paul tells us that God has not made His eternal covenant with all of the visible nation of Israel, but rather is specific in His election, "In Isaac your seed shall be called."
Then, as is his teaching style, Paul goes on in vv. 10-13 to give us a perfect example of God's sovereign election. Here we have two brothers. In fact, two twin brothers. Paul clearly tells us that the method of election that God used was for the purpose of showing the world "that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works but of Him who calls." Now, I've heard the Catholic explanation of these verses. I've heard that God "looked at time and saw that Jacob was going to freely choose Him so He chose Jacob over Esau." There's one glaring problem with this view. If God was desiring to show the world that His plan is according to His own purpose in electing and setting apart a people for Himself then it cannot be based on Jacob's actions, at any point in time. If it was based on Jacob's actions then all the world would think was that God chooses us because we deserve to be chosen because we make the right decision. Who is glorified in that scenario? I hope you're honest enough to admit that it would be man, not God. Also, that completely destroys the obvious intent of Paul's rhetorical question in verse 14. Think about it de Unamuno. If all Paul was saying in vv. 10-13 was that God chose Jacob based on foreseeing Jacob's actions then it would be completely illogical for him to anticipate the objection he raises in verse 14:
Romans 9:14,15
What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? Certainly not! For He says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion."
Clearly, the ONLY way that his anticipated objection makes any sense, whatsoever, is if vv. 10-13 mean that God chose Jacob based NOT on Jacob's forseen actions but, rather, upon the divine purpose of God in election.
He grants blessing to us, to the vast majority of us that he doesn't need to use for an example, to be able to choose him.
If I understand you correctly you're saying that God's entire purpose in blessing us is so that we are
able to choose Him? Did God do nothing to
ensure that we would choose Him? If not, was there the possibility, since all had the ability to reject Him, that all would reject Him? Or is it mere luck that we didn't all reject Him and make the entire plan of God a waste of His divine effort?
That doesn't me we have to choose him
Here's the thing de Unamuno, if we reduce God's plan to merely something that
enables us to be saved but does not ensure that we are saved then you must admit that two possibilities were viable. First, that everyone would accept Him as Lord and Savior and be saved and, second, that no one would. Do you concede either of those possibilities?
and in the context of the rest of Romans (and the rest of the Bible), it is painfully clear that we can choose to enter into his church by our own volition.
But I don't deny that we choose to enter His church by our own volition. However, I am curious what you attribute as the reason that some choose to willingly enter into servitude to the Lord and some reject it. Any opinions?
He simply turns off that right for some
So you don't disagree with God's omnipotent reprobation, you just feel that it's not a universal execution of His sovereign power. Is that what you're saying.
but nevertheless, Paul says that he still "has endured with much patience" with his vessels of wrath.
I'm not clear why this is a "nevertheless" but why do you think He endured them?
In my Catholic opinion, you are reading the scriptures as someone who cannot see time from God's perspective. God knows who will choose him and who will turn away from him well before that person exists, yet he still allows that person to be made. That carries a certain tone of predestination, and in that sense actually implies that you will do exactly what you were made to do, but it is entirely different than Calven's theory in that an act of will that God foresaw is still allowed at some point in the person's life.
As I said to Michelle, the point of contention between our views is NOT whether God allows for an act of our will but, rather, what it is that determines what that act will be. If one views unregenerate man as morally capable of submitting to God then it logically follows that God would base His choice of someone on their freely willed action. Aside from the fact that this makes God's entire plan contingent upon the will of man rather than on the merciful grace of God, it also does violence to much of Scripture.
Think of my ealier example of Jacob and Esau. Common Jewish custom was that the older son, in this case Esau, would inherit all the blessings by virtue of his station as the oldest son of his father. Now, God's plan certainly included the freely willed actions of Esau in selling his birthright, that I do not deny. However, just because Esau's action of selling his birthright for a bowl of soup ushers in God's sovereign plan of election in choosing Jacob over Esau as the recipient of His blessings doesn't mean that that freely willed action of Esau's wasn't in perfect accordance with God's eternal plan. God's plan wasn't based upon the actions of His creation. On the contrary, our actions are in accordance with His plan because it is His effectual grace that providentially manifests His plan.
Again, if Scripture is not saying that the conditions upon which God's plan is based are found in God alone and not in the actions, foreseen or otherwise, of His creation then the subsequent objections Paul raises in vv. 14, 19, and 30 make absolutely no sense whatsoever.
God bless,
Don