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Read Romans. By the time I am done here it will probably have to be quoted in full along with Hebrews.
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Read Romans. By the time I am done here it will probably have to be quoted in full along with Hebrews.Sorry. I don't get you. Can you explain the point that you want to make in greater detail?
No that verse does not imply the Work of Christ makes us able to be good enough.
Yes and it the righteousness of God cited no?I didn't say that Christ makes us capable of doing works that then save us. Virtue is neither a cause nor an effect of salvation. Being righteous just is what salvation is.
Then whose righteousness if not God’s? I only see God’s righteousness there.This does not teach that our Lord's own personal righteousness is imputed to a believer. The text states or implies no such thing.
You are going to have to unwrap that a bit.I don't deny that there are things that sound similar to the idea of literal/federal/w/e imputation, in the text, but on my understanding of the concept of imputation, taking it literally here would make God out to be a liar, and for no reason whatsoever (He lies to Himself by saying that His own (as His Son) good works were actually performed by we sinners, and He says this to Himself to avoid punishing us when He could just as well have avoided predestining us to sin, or imputing Adam's sin to us, or whatever, in the first place).
I'm going to assume that this is not the best translation of the original, because as it stands, it's absurd.
The text states "so that in him we might become the righteousness of God". The only righteousness referred to here is "the righteousness of God". But this does not teach that our Lord Jesus's own personal righteousness is imputed to a believer. The text simply does not state this. This is merely your interpretation of the text.Then whose righteousness if not God’s? I only see God’s righteousness there.
Not in a way that he himself became hated by the Father. But that seems to be Reformed soteriology and I'm not buying.Maybe this could clarify. Did Christ take upon Himself our sin?
You read it first.Read Romans. By the time I am done here it will probably have to be quoted in full along with Hebrews.
If one believes in Him who justifies the wicked, is not his faith credited as righteousness? If this be the case then whose righteousness do we speak of? Who is crediting the righteousness? Is this not God?The text states "so that in him we might become the righteousness of God". The only righteousness referred to here is "the righteousness of God". But this does not teach that our Lord Jesus's own personal righteousness is imputed to a believer. The text simply does not state this. This is merely your interpretation of the text.
I’ll take that as a yes that Christ took upon himself our sins.Not in a way that he himself became hated by the Father. But that seems to be Reformed soteriology and I'm not buying.
The text does not state whose righteousness is spoken of.If this be the case then whose righteousness do we speak of?
Verse 6 appears to indicate that God is crediting the righteousness.Who is crediting the righteousness? Is this not God?
You can read about this in the Catechism of the Catholic Church and the Bible. Or you could wait a while for me to quote it all for you in a day or so. You will do better reading the Catechism because you can get your answer in minutes or hours and it's more coherent anyway.I’ll take that as a yes that Christ took upon himself our sins.
Why did He do this?
Any particular reason?I am not Catholic.
So we don’t know?The text does not state whose righteousness is spoken of.
Neither of us are Modalists.When are you going to provide a verse that teaches that our Lord's Jesus's own personal righteousness is imputed to a believer?
It is the PROTESTANT VIEW...it is neither the Orthodox or the orthodox view
5 In the days of Herod, king of Judea, there was a priest named Zechariah, of the division of Abijah. And he had a wife from the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth. 6 And they were both righteous before God, walking blamelessly in all the commandments and statutes of the Lord. 7 But they had no child, because Elizabeth was barren, and both were advanced in years.So we don’t know?
There is none who are righteous therefore it cannot be our righteousness spoken of. It is The justifier.
Yes, but God can make a man righteous in many different ways. You seem to think that the only way that God can make a man righteous is to impute our Lord's personal righteousness to him, but that is not the only possibility. Here you can study the Catholic concept of infused righteousness or infused grace. Again, the explanation is long, but I am sure there are plenty of resources you can find on the web that explain that.Neither of us are Modalists.
Romans 5:
15But the free gift is not like the trespass. For if many died through one man’s trespass, much more have the grace of God and the free gift by the grace of that one man Jesus Christ abounded for many. 16And the free gift is not like the result of that one man’s sin. For the judgment following one trespass brought condemnation, but the free gift following many trespasses brought justification. 17For if, because of one man’s trespass, death reigned through that one man, much more will those who receive the abundance of grace and the free gift of righteousness reign in life through the one man Jesus Christ.
18Therefore, as one trespassf led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousnessg leads to justification and life for all men. 19For as by the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s obedience the many will be made righteous. 20Now the law came in to increase the trespass, but where sin increased, grace abounded all the more, 21so that, as sin reigned in death, grace also might reign through righteousness leading to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
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