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We must partake of the devine nature to be the son or daughter of God.
Made in Him image, called for His purpose. Refined by His love.
Those who have ears will hear.
All humans are made in His image (See Genesis 9:6).
Of course I'm serious, because I know that the concept of a Godhead existed in Judaism during the 2nd temple period.
Here is some research about it:
Two Powers in Heaven: Early Rabbinic Reports about Christianity and Gnosticism: Alan F. Segal: 9781602585492: Amazon.com: Books
I can understand that you're unaware of it. But among scholars it's well known.
Get a load of this 1st-century Jewish commentary on Deuteronomy 4:
Catch that? The 1st-century Jewish commentaries, called "Targums", are awash with this stuff. In them, "the Word of the Lord" is personified and repeatedly substituted in place of God. So when the Apostle John wrote "and the Word was with God and the Word was God", he was just repeating what Jews of his time were already being taught: the Word of the Lord was a manifestation of the Lord himself.
Here's Etheridge's translation of Targum Jonathan: The Targum of Jonathan Ben Uzziel On the Pentateuch. You don't even need to be a scholar to see how the "Word of the Lord" is treated as divine. Just search for "Word of the Lord" in the text. You'll find it in there hundreds of times. Here are just a few:
As revealed by Dr. Segal, those Jewish beliefs were declared heretical by the rabbis in the 2nd century AD. I'm sure it's no coincidence that it was done after the first Christians, who were Jews, took that belief and applied it to Jesus of Nazareth.
In John 1 and Revelation 19 the "Word of God" is a title for Jesus, so of course it's capitalized there.You capitalize the W in "word" to try and make us think it is Jesus. Unless you are using a certain revised Bible that changes it to a capital W, then the verse is "word", not proper. The word of the "Lord", not the "Word" of the Lord.
In John 1 and Revelation 19 the "Word of God" is a title for Jesus, so of course it's capitalized there.
In Etheridge's translation of Targum Jonathan he capitalizes it whenever the Jewish authors replaced "Lord" or "YHWH" with it. That makes sense, because the Jewish authors are replacing God's name with it, and we capitalize names.
Since I'm referring to and quoting the Targums, I choose to use the same capitalization rule used by the translators.
The capitalization of the word of the lord in the Targums makes no actual difference, since the meaning is determined via the context and usage.We shouldn't pick and choose different translators that change things that could mislead us. The NKJV capitalizes A in antichrist to make it proper (as a person) while the majority of translators don't. The word means "against Christ" in some and a leading figure in others. Since Orthodoxy has come to believe there is an "Antichrist" coming, the translators take it on themselves to make the change to confirm what may not be truth.
I would think it could take multiple meanings including our reception of God's gifts of His Grace on us.
That first statement is double speak. Our belief and faith is that we partake in His Divine Nature when He bestows His Graces (multiple forms of Grace) upon us. To then say that belief is more a matter of belief or faith than actually partaking makes no sense. Of course it is a matter of belief and faith, but the matter of belief and faith is that we do and can partake daily and partake in various ways.I believe that would fall into belief or faith more so than a 'partaking of the divine nature'.[B said:DrBubbaLove][/B]
I would think it could take multiple meanings including our reception of God's gifts of His Grace on us.
I believe that the 'partaking of the divine nature' would be what happens when we grow INTO Christ and His Father.
While we certainly receive God's gifts and grace, (even more deeply as we grow), what I sense in the offering concerning 'divine nature' is that WE TOO can be a PART of the divine nature itself. That we can be LIKE God and His Son so far as divinity is concerned.
Which was the point: if we TOO can share divinity, that word does NOT mean GOD so much as it means LIKE God.
In other words, Christ's divinity, (being LIKE God), does not make Christ GOD Himself. He TOO shares divinity with the Father. Just as WE can share divinity with both Father and Son.
Blessings,
MEC
Borrow someones else's application but noting that this reference focuses on ONLY one form of participation in receiving God's Grace - there are many others:
"The Offertory at Mass, in both the old and the new Roman rite, contains the prayer By the mystery of this water and wine may we come to
share in the divinity of Christ, who humbled himself to share in our humanity.
If we did not share in his divinity, then there would be only actual grace. But from Baptism onwards we receive Supernatural Gracesgraces above our human nature.
If we did not share in his divinity, then we would be capable of only human faith, hope and charity as a result of our own strength of character. But we receive Supernatural VirtuesFaith, Hope and Charity by the power of God.
If we did not share in his divinity, then we would receive only his humanity in Holy Communion. But we receive the whole Christ, Body, Blood, Soul and Divinity."
Fr. Joseph Ponessa, S.S.D., co-author of the Come and See Catholic Bible Study Series on the Gospel of John from Emmaus Road Publishing
I understand. If Christ is not God but simply sharing God's Nature, then those statements would mean we too simply share. But as you noted, we believe Jesus is God, not simply sharing something.You'll have to forgive me if I do not agree with the author you have quoted. I am not a 'Catholic' nor do I subscribe to many Catholic views. While I accept that they are 'other views' than my own, I am bound to follow that which I understand.
I don't agree with the 'share IN His divinity'. I believe that the use of the word "IN" actually alters what we are offered in scripture. We simply SHARE divinity. For to partake MEANS to share. I don't know WHY the author added the word "IN" but it seems to water down an actual SHARING.
But the point was: Over and over I have heard 'trinitarians' state that 'if Christ is DIVINE, then He MUST be God'. The Bible would indicate otherwise. For the Bible tells us that WE TOO can share that very divinity. But that certainly doesn't make US God.
So my argument is NOT whether Christ IS or is NOT God. My statement is that Christ being divine does NOT make Him God. Any more than us sharing that divinity would make US God.
Blessings,
MEC