Divine Name King James Version????

benelchi

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A Hebrew tetragramaton for the revealed name of our God which he gave for us is not in the new T, but his name can appear in another way, as it does with the expression Halleluyah.

Yes, the abbreviated "Yah" can been seen in the Hebrew word "הללויה" but it the NT this is written in Greek (ἁλληλουϊά) and it is not something that a Greek reader would see as the name YHWH any more that English readers see the name YHWH in Halleluyah. Even English speakers that have been taught that Halleluyah means "praise the Lord" often still don't understand why.

None of this really matters because the NT authors were not inspired to put the tetragramaton into the text of the NT and neither should we.
 
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FredVB

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Yes, the abbreviated "Yah" can been seen in the Hebrew word "הללויה" but it the NT this is written in Greek (ἁλληλουϊά) and it is not something that a Greek reader would see as the name YHWH any more that English readers see the name YHWH in Halleluyah.

Of course it was in written in Greek letters as all text of manuscripts used for translation of the new testament are. It is presumption to say the early Greek readers among believers would not know the name of God occurring in such writing.

Even English speakers that have been taught that Halleluyah means "praise the Lord" often still don't understand why.

It is unfortunately the case so many English speaking believers (and I do mean them as believers) do not know or recognize the name of Yahweh. For this I refer to Exodus 3 where Yahweh (designated "the LORD" in many translations) says "This is My name forever, and this is My memorial to all generations", for it not to be neglected among all scriptures, with all scriptures for us to learn from.

None of this really matters because the NT authors were not inspired to put the tetragramaton into the text of the NT and neither should we.

This argument if true would then apply to putting "the LORD" with the capitals, when it is placed for where the name is meant, also in the new testament, this is also done. But the truth is that if any old testament scriptures are not written into the new testament, it does not mean all of that should be disregarded. I am not thinking of the exact four letters (the tetragrammaton) being used in writing in our language, but there is wide understanding that the ancient writing is representing what we say with the name of Yahweh as it is managed in our language. That or what form can be known as recognizing the name he revealed for us is appropriate, leaving it to be forgotten when it is known is not, according to what he said.

This is speaking on appropriate response to what God says, not speaking of condemnation or questioning anyone's salvation, as obedience to him comes from salvation, not salvation coming from obedience.
 
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SteveCaruso

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The Reverend David Bauscher, author of 'The Aramaic-English Interlinear New Testament’ states about “MayYah”:

...

“Understanding why MarYah is the Aramaic Name for YHWH Introduction

Throughout both volumes of this work, I have been repeatedly making the assertion that the Peshitta Tanakh and New Testament usage of the phrase MarYah ayrm is neither a title nor a conjugation of the word Mar rm meaning “master”.

I would take anything Bauscher argues about the Peshitta with a grain of salt. His assertions are simply incorrect in places as he makes some very foundational mistakes:

1) Aramaic is not one language, but a family of closely-related languages, many of which are strikingly different from one another. Jesus and his first followers did not speak Syriac, they spoke early Galilean -- a very distinct dialect. As a result the vernacular of the Peshitta (the text that he bases his arguments off of) has little weight.

2) Where in the Peshitta /marya/ is generally used to replace YHWH in quotes from the Hebrew Bible, /marya/ is often used in other Jewish works as the simple emphatic "lord" or "master" (be it "The Lord" or "the lord/master of the manor" etc.).

3) In Western dialects (like Galilean) which retain the absolute/emphatic distinction (i.e. definite and indefinite forms of words, which is lost in Eastern dialects like Syriac and Jewish Babylonian Aramaic) this "normal" use is all over the place. /Mare/ is again and again used to express "(a) master" where /marya/ is again and again used to express "the master." To argue that it is anything else ignores copious extant examples and well-established etymology.

Just FYI. :)
 
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FreeinChrist

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This thread has had a small clean up. As a reminder, the site rules include this:

Do not post in the forums reserved for Christians only, unless you are truly a Nicene Creed, Trinitarian Christian (please see our Statement of Faith to know exactly what that is). If you wish to discuss unorthodox doctrines, you may do so in Unorthodox Theology.
 
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PF_flyer1

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The divine name as stated is there as the tetragrammaton 6900+ times in the Hebrew. We cannot conclusively say that it was not in the original New Testament for we don't have the Autographs as some scholars call the original writings so we don't know if the divine name was there or not.
We have come to know however from the Jews of the time of the early Christian writings that they found the divine name used in early christian writings and tore them out and then burn the christian writings, so the assumption is it was originally there, especially when quoting the old testament.
Finally if you put your name in a book 6900+ times do you really think you will be okay with removing it all but maybe 4-8 times and subbing it with Sir or Madame, I don't think so!!!
 
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