- Aug 22, 2004
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In my daily reading today I noticed that Matthew 9:18 has a different take on the events from parallel accounts in Mark 5 and Luke 8. Matthew records the ruler saying that "my daughter has just died" (NIV) Other translations are pretty consistent with this and the Greek construction (of which I am definately no expert) seems somewhat consistent with the idea translated "has just died." Mark and Luke record the ruler as having said that his daughter was nearly dead.
The only commentator I have found to address this "discrepancy" is Clark who notes that the Greek construction in Matthew could be understood to convey the idea, "my daughter is so sick she may even now be dead." Other commentators I have checked on today do not even address the "discrepancy."
I'm just curious about your thoughts on the matter. I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture and this is not shaking my faith or anything. I am just curious about how these passages might be best reconciled.
The only commentator I have found to address this "discrepancy" is Clark who notes that the Greek construction in Matthew could be understood to convey the idea, "my daughter is so sick she may even now be dead." Other commentators I have checked on today do not even address the "discrepancy."
I'm just curious about your thoughts on the matter. I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture and this is not shaking my faith or anything. I am just curious about how these passages might be best reconciled.