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Did the bible get Plutoed?

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'As we treat the least of our brothers...' RIP GA
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The son of god's name is ישוע (Yēšûă) or Joshua. Why did they change what he was called? Well, Joshua means "Yahweh is salvation", so the bible, by changing it, is saying that Yahweh is no longer salvation.

It's like Shakespeare said, a rose by any other name would no longer be a rose.
 
A

Adaephon

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[serious];62326672 said:
The son of god's name is ???? (Y?šû?) or Joshua. Why did they change what he was called? Well, Joshua means "Yahweh is salvation", so the bible, by changing it, is saying that Yahweh is no longer salvation.

It's like Shakespeare said, a rose by any other name would no longer be a rose.

Because the New Testament wasn't written in Hebrew. I don't even know where you're getting that Hebrew word.
 
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Subduction Zone

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Because the New Testament wasn't written in Hebrew. I don't even know where you're getting that Hebrew word.


He was getting at the fact that Joshua is the same as Jesus when it comes to names.

For example one of the most popular names, John in English has many different variants. It is Ian in Scotland, Sean in Ireland, Juan in Spain, Ivan in Russia, Johann in Germany, in fact read this:

John (given name) - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia


AVET is railing on and on about how Pluto is no longer officially a planet. Well, Jesus was not called Jesus in Israel, he was called Yeshua. And this is an approximation since I am still writing in English:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yeshua_(name)
 
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Notedstrangeperson

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ChristianT said:
I understand the strategy of this thread, but does all of AVs posts need an equal and opposite reaction?
Yes. It's Newton's third law of forum-warring.

Ironically having an equal and opposite reaction to your actions is also known as karma. :p
 
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Subduction Zone

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Jesus comes from the Greek "Iesous." ??????

I understand the strategy of this thread, but does all of AVs posts need an equal and opposite reaction?

Yup, that looks about as close as it can be written in English. In Greek of course it would be a bit different since they have a different alphabet than we do.

And yes, this is the opposite of one of AV's threads, but the difference between his thread and this thread is that this thread is proceeding logically and calmly since AVET is not here.
 
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Radagast

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Yup, that looks about as close as it can be written in English. In Greek of course it would be a bit different since they have a different alphabet than we do.

Ἰησοῦς

Seems the OP didn't know the NT was written in Greek.
 
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Subduction Zone

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Ἰησοῦς

Seems the OP didn't know the NT was written in Greek.

Yes, it was written in Greek, but Jesus would have had an Aramaic name. Which is what he posted. Or at least I believe he tried to post it in that form. I can't read Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek, so I could be wrong.
 
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Ἰησοῦς

Seems the OP didn't know the NT was written in Greek.

You are missing the broader point that something CHANGED. I wasn't even consulted before some group of elitist "historians" decided to change the son of god's name!
 
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SteveCaruso

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[serious];62326672 said:
The son of god's name is ישוע (Yēšûă) or Joshua. Why did they change what he was called? Well, Joshua means "Yahweh is salvation", so the bible, by changing it, is saying that Yahweh is no longer salvation.

Actually, it's יהושוע /yehoshua/ that means "God is salvation." ישוע /yeshua/ is the Aramaic *cognate* for the name, but doesn't quite mean the same thing as that. Theophoric elements work differently in Aramaic, and we even see that in the Gospel of Matthew, the author believed that ישוע /yeshua/ was the 3rd person Imperfect of "to save" which is "he shall save" ( == Matthew 1:21: She shall give birth to a son. You shall call his name Jesus [[i.e. /yeshua/, "he will save"]], for it is he who shall save his people from their sins.).

Names also change depending on the language spoken.

Koine Greek has no "SH" sound in its phonology, so ש /shin/ was changed to σ /sigma/. The ς (final /sigma/) at the end is required for Greek grammar, as Greek requires certain inflections to determine the part of speech (subject, direct object, indirect object, etc.) where Aramaic declensions don't (they determine definiteness and compounds). There is also no Greek equivalent for the Hebrew/Aramaic letter ע /ayin/ which sounds like an "uh" in the back of the throat, like you're about to vomit (granted it was somewhat softened in Galilean Aramaic, what Jesus spoke).

Following the usual rules of grammar and pronunciation for different languages, names and loan words will naturally change over time and with use.

[serious];62326672 said:
It's like Shakespeare said, a rose by any other name would no longer be a rose.

Shakespeare wrote Julliet saying to Romeo,

'Tis but thy name that is my enemy;
Thou art thyself, though not a Montague.
What's Montague? it is nor hand, nor foot,
Nor arm, nor face, nor any other part
Belonging to a man. O, be some other name!
What's in a name? that which we call a rose
By any other name would smell as sweet;

So Romeo would, were he not Romeo call'd,
Retain that dear perfection which he owes
Without that title.
Romeo, doff thy name,
And for that name which is no part of thee
Take all myself.
I.e. it doesn't matter what a rose is called, a rose is a rose ... kinda the opposite of what you claim.

So Jesus = Yeshua = Yehoshua = Iesous = Iesus = Isa = Yesu = The same man.
 
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Shakespeare wrote Julliet saying to Romeo,

I.e. it doesn't matter what a rose is called, a rose is a rose ... kinda the opposite of what you claim.

So Jesus = Yeshua = Yehoshua = Iesous = Iesus = Isa = Yesu = The same man.

Are you trying to suggest this thread is sarcastic or a parody? I am shocked by that implication. Shocked I say!
 
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