Did Mary have metaphorical sex with the Holy Spirit?

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StAthanasius

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I have always wondered how we should understand the metaphorical role of the Holy Spirit in Immaculate Conception. My assumption has been that the Holy Sprit's role is symbolically masculine. Catholic teaching refers to the Holy Spirit as Mary's spouse because of her perpetual virginity and relationship to God.

This assumption was challenged recently as I read Luke 1:35:

The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you." (NIV)

This article proposes an alternative interpretation to this. Instead of describing one divine act, it is describing two. The first is an act of the Holy Spirit empowering Mary for immaculate conception. It is characteristic of a mother-in-law's relationship to the bride before the night of wedding. The post uses a Jewish mikvah bathing ritual as the foundation for this metaphor. The second is an act of God the Father metaphorically consummating the spousal relationship with Mary.

Do people think this is a valid interpretation? Is the Holy Spirit feminine, and does the metaphorical title of mother-in-law subvert the Trinity?
 
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Der Alte

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Nope! If some type of literal physical action on the part of God or the Holy Spirit had occurred scripture would have clearly stated it. No point(s) of doctrine can or should be inferred from what is NOT stated in scripture.
 
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StAthanasius

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Nope! If some type of literal physical action on the part of God or the Holy Spirit had occurred scripture would have clearly stated it. No point(s) of doctrine can or should be inferred from what is NOT stated in scripture.
Do you think it is valid to call the Holy Spirt the spouse of Mary like the Catholics do?
 
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Albion

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Do you think that the Holy Spirit symbolically masculine?
God is referred to in Scripture by masculine terms and pronouns, but that's a long way from speculating about God impregnating Mary in the human way, albeit invisibly, etc. And to be sure, Jesus, who was and is God, became a male human. but again, God does not have gender in the sense that we understand it.
 
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StAthanasius

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God is referred to in Scripture by masculine terms and pronouns, but that's a long way from speculating about God impregnating Mary in the human way, albeit invisibly, etc. And to be sure, Jesus, who was and is God, became a male human. but again, God does not have gender in the sense that we understand it.
How do you interpret Luke 1:35?
 
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StAthanasius

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The power of the Holy Spirit (i.e. God) shall cause Mary to conceive (without her having had sexual relations).
Why would using sex as a metaphor for understanding this relationship constitute as sexual relations?
 
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StAthanasius

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Sorry, let me clarify. I think that sex is a metaphorical pattern that is repeated throughout nature and the divine. For example, this pattern is repeated in pollinating flowers and even making art. A creative dynamic relationship between masculine and feminine forces can be seen in both. Immaculate conception appears to be another example of this pattern. Using this pattern to frame immaculate conception isn’t the same as sexual relations though.
 
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Albion

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Immaculate conception appears to be another example of this pattern.
I don't get that part.

But you aren't referring to the Catholic doctrine of the Immaculate Conception, I assume, as it refers to the belief that Mary was kept from original sin at her own conception which was otherwise normal.
 
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Considering that the sons of God (divine beings - sometimes called angels, which are spirits) had sexual relations with human women and were punished, it wouldn’t make sense for the Holy Spirit to then have sexual relations, even metaphorically, with a woman, to produce the Messiah.

The Holy Spirit caused Mary to conceive without a sexual relation. It’s not that deep.
 
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Mary was the incubator ... God provided everything necessary for the miraculous conception to happen within her.
Do you wish the woman who birthed you a "Happy incubators day" on the 2nd Sunday of May?
 
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I have always wondered how we should understand the metaphorical role of the Holy Spirit in Immaculate Conception. My assumption has been that the Holy Sprit's role is symbolically masculine. Catholic teaching refers to the Holy Spirit as Mary's spouse because of her perpetual virginity and relationship to God.

This assumption was challenged recently as I read Luke 1:35:

The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you." (NIV)

This article proposes an alternative interpretation to this. Instead of describing one divine act, it is describing two. The first is an act of the Holy Spirit empowering Mary for immaculate conception. It is characteristic of a mother-in-law's relationship to the bride before the night of wedding. The post uses a Jewish mikvah bathing ritual as the foundation for this metaphor. The second is an act of God the Father metaphorically consummating the spousal relationship with Mary.

Do people think this is a valid interpretation? Is the Holy Spirit feminine, and does the metaphorical title of mother-in-law subvert the Trinity?

No.
There was no sex suggested or otherwise inferred by the Holy Spirit towards her. She was a virgin and remained one until the birth of Jesus.

Mary was not a perpetual virgin, she went on to half a dozen or more children with her husband Joseph.
 
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Saint Steven

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Considering that the sons of God (divine beings - sometimes called angels, which are spirits) had sexual relations with human women and were punished...
They were punished?
Furthermore, doesn't the text say they married them? (thus legitimizing the relationship)
Perhaps they conceived in the same way as Mary?
 
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There was no sex suggested or otherwise inferred by the Holy Spirit towards her.
Well, it certainly seems inferred in that the Spirit "overshadowed" her and she conceived.
God created sex, yet we treat it like a dirty thing.
 
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