"Constantine the Great (Latin: Flavius Valerius Aurelius Constantinus Augustus; Greek: Κωνσταντῖνος ὁ Μέγας; 27 February c. 272 AD[1] – 22 May 337 AD), also known as Constantine I, was a Roman Emperor who ruled between 306 and 337 AD. ..." - Wikipedia
How could the Pagan Roman Emperor, Constantine, "make" the Bible, when it was already in existence, especially the OT texts, and so also the NT texts?
Did not Jesus specifically mention the "law of Moses", "the prophets" and "the psalms" in Luk. 24:44, and speak of "Abel" unto "Zacharias" in Luk. 11:51, which encompasses the whole of the OT texts?
Is there not a council in Acts 15, that cited the scriptures as authoritative (ie. Amos 9, in Acts 15:15-18), in conjunction with the events and witness of the Holy Ghost?
Did not Paul speak to Timothy about the "scriptures" that were given by "inspiration" of God, that Timothy was to read to bring him to a perfect relationship with God, in 2 Tim. 3:16-17?
Didn't Matthew, Mark, Luke, Paul, Peter, James, John, Jude and Jesus in Revelation, all cite from the OT texts, such as Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, ... psalms ... Isaiah, Jeremiah, Daniel, Ezekiel, etc?
Wasn't Revelation written even before the Gospel of John and his epistles, circa A.D. 90, long before Constantine existed?
Did not Peter, circa A.D. 60-65, write about Paul's epistles (14 that we know of, if one includes Hebrews, not counting the other letters sent in advance of the ones we have), that they also too were counted as "scriptures", in 2 Pet. 3:16, well before the 4th Cent.?
What does the OP mean by "make the Bible"?
What evidence is there, historically, that Constantine was a Christian according to the standards laid down in the scriptures that existed before himself?
Did Constantine historically live the life required by Jesus, and so die in Him (historical documentation on any point would be required, at least by myself)?