Deuteronomy 25:11-12

[addo]

If two men fight together, and the wife of one draws near to rescue her husband from the hand of the one attacking him, and puts out her hand and seizes him by the genitals, then you shall cut off her hand; your eye shall not pity her.
​

Well, this is an interesting commandment.

But, could someone explain it to me? Why should the woman's hand be cut off for grabbing his genitals?

Here is the Hebrew.

Here is the verse in other bibles.

So could someone explain what does this mean and why did God command this?

Thank you.

 

[Stryder06]

My opinion: A woman isn't gonna go blindly into a fight and "accidentally" grab a man by his genitals.

That's like malicious intent.

 

[cyberlizard]

sometimes, the Torah contains some very odd legal rulings and I often sit and scratch my head. Sometimes I think that seems a bit silly, then I remember who gave the command and re-consider.

Have you considered asking a Rabbi of the orthodox Jewish variety. Here is a link to do just that. When you have the answer let us know.

Link Here


Steve

 

[LittleLambofJesus]

sometimes, the Torah contains some very odd legal rulings and I often sit and scratch my head. Sometimes I think that seems a bit silly, then I remember who gave the command and re-consider.

Have you considered asking a Rabbi of the orthodox Jewish variety. Here is a link to do just that. When you have the answer let us know.

Link Here
Steve

Why would a "Gentile" Christian want to ask an orthodox Jewish rabbi anyting about the Christian NT/NC?
They don't believe Jesus was their Savior/Redeemer!

However, you and other MJs are welcome to discuss that with our Jewish brethren on this thread

http://www.christianforums.com/t2326272-48/#post20084413
Of Jews and Messianics

 

[cyberlizard]

they might want to ask an orthodox Jewish rabbi as the verse in question is part of the Tanakh (OT), not the NC/NT - duh!!! It's part of the Law... you know the legal rulings we are now free of (!!!)


Steve

 

[pehkay]

This judgment reveals that God is not only strict in His government but also that He is detailed.

Other than that, don't read too much from it ;D

 

[Eucharisted]

If two men fight together, and the wife of one draws near to rescue her husband from the hand of the one attacking him, and puts out her hand and seizes him by the genitals, then you shall cut off her hand; your eye shall not pity her.
​

Well, this is an interesting commandment.

But, could someone explain it to me? Why should the woman's hand be cut off for grabbing his genitals?

Here is the Hebrew.

Here is the verse in other bibles.

So could someone explain what does this mean and why did God command this?

Thank you.

Studying the ancient laws of the time will help, methinks

 

[Rose_bud]

IMO... A bit ironic ….She would be belittling her husbands “manhood”(in the sense that he can’t win his own fights), by grasping his opponents...

As for the hand being cut off... maybe because, she should let her husband "HANDle" he's own business...

 

[addo]

sometimes, the Torah contains some very odd legal rulings and I often sit and scratch my head. Sometimes I think that seems a bit silly, then I remember who gave the command and re-consider.

Have you considered asking a Rabbi of the orthodox Jewish variety. Here is a link to do just that. When you have the answer let us know.

Link Here


Steve

Here it is:

Dear Emanuel,

While the verse is referring to one who is in danger, it is referring to an instance when this was NOT the only way to save her husband.

Furthermore, as is explained in the oral Torah, "cutting off the hands" is not meant in the literal sense, rather it refers to monetary compensation. In the words of the great biblical commentator Rabbi Sholomo Yitzchaki -Rashi:

You shall cut off her hand: [This verse is not to be understood literally, but rather, it means:] She must pay monetary damages to recompense the victim for the embarrassment he suffered [through her action. The amount she must pay is calculated by the court,] all according to the [social status] of the culprit and the victim (see B.K. 83b). But perhaps [it means that we must actually cut off] her very hand? [The answer is born out from a transmission handed down to our Rabbis, as follows:] Here, it says לֹא תָחוֹס,“do not have pity,” and later, in the case of conspiring witnesses (Deut. 19:21), the same expression, לֹא תָחוֹס, is used. [And our Rabbis taught that these verses have a contextual connection:] Just as there, in the case of the conspiring witnesses, [the literal expressions in the verse refer to] monetary compensation (see Rashi on that verse), so too, here, [the expression “You must cut off her hand” refers to] monetary compensation. — [Sifrei 25:161]
​

Let me know if this helps.

All the best,
Rabbi Yehuda Shurpin​

 

[zaksmummy]

Why would a "Gentile" Christian want to ask an orthodox Jewish rabbi anyting about the Christian NT/NC?
They don't believe Jesus was their Savior/Redeemer!

Neither does half of the rest of the world, but you wouldnt have this attitude towards a Chinese person, for example if you wanted to understand their legal system and culture would you?

 

[Anoetos]

Sounds like an example of very early case law to me.

 

[cyberlizard]

sometimes, the Torah contains some very odd legal rulings and I often sit and scratch my head. Sometimes I think that seems a bit silly, then I remember who gave the command and re-consider.

Have you considered asking a Rabbi of the orthodox Jewish variety. Here is a link to do just that. When you have the answer let us know.

Link Here


Steve

Here it is:

Dear Emanuel,

While the verse is referring to one who is in danger, it is referring to an instance when this was NOT the only way to save her husband.

Furthermore, as is explained in the oral Torah, "cutting off the hands" is not meant in the literal sense, rather it refers to monetary compensation. In the words of the great biblical commentator Rabbi Sholomo Yitzchaki -Rashi:

You shall cut off her hand: [This verse is not to be understood literally, but rather, it means:] She must pay monetary damages to recompense the victim for the embarrassment he suffered [through her action. The amount she must pay is calculated by the court,] all according to the [social status] of the culprit and the victim (see B.K. 83b). But perhaps [it means that we must actually cut off] her very hand? [The answer is born out from a transmission handed down to our Rabbis, as follows:] Here, it says לֹא תָחוֹס,“do not have pity,” and later, in the case of conspiring witnesses (Deut. 19:21), the same expression, לֹא תָחוֹס, is used. [And our Rabbis taught that these verses have a contextual connection:] Just as there, in the case of the conspiring witnesses, [the literal expressions in the verse refer to] monetary compensation (see Rashi on that verse), so too, here, [the expression “You must cut off her hand” refers to] monetary compensation. — [Sifrei 25:161]
​

Let me know if this helps.

All the best,
Rabbi Yehuda Shurpin​

wow, that has got to be the first time anyone has actually read one of my posts and taken up it's suggestion.

I finally believe in miracles.


Steve

 

[Frogster]

Neither does half of the rest of the world, but you wouldnt have this attitude towards a Chinese person, for example if you wanted to understand their legal system and culture would you?

Rabbi's did not know everthing, and were not united. There were some that believed as Paul did, that Abraham was justified by faith. Read Willaim Barclay on Romans.

 

[bugkiller]

If two men fight together, and the wife of one draws near to rescue her husband from the hand of the one attacking him, and puts out her hand and seizes him by the genitals, then you shall cut off her hand; your eye shall not pity her.
​

Well, this is an interesting commandment.

But, could someone explain it to me? Why should the woman's hand be cut off for grabbing his genitals?

Here is the Hebrew.

Here is the verse in other bibles.

So could someone explain what does this mean and why did God command this?

Thank you.

Considering the male atire of the day I really wonder if they weren't naked when they fought or it must be a very tame none physical fight.

bugkiller

 

[bugkiller]

Rabbi's did not know everthing, and were not united. There were some that believed as Paul did, that Abraham was justified by faith. Read Willaim Barclay on Romans.

I have heard that if you have 3 Rabbis you have 5 opinions.

bugkiller

 

[Secundulus]

I imagine it was written because it had actually happened and the case went before Moses for judgement.

It probably had a lot to do with injuring a man's testicles and destroying his ability to procreate as was commanded by God.

 

[razeontherock]

IMO... A bit ironic ….She would be belittling her husbands “manhood”(in the sense that he can’t win his own fights), by grasping his opponents...

As for the hand being cut off... maybe because, she should let her husband "HANDle" he's own business...

THIS is the way to think of OT law! Everything has a purpose, and it ALL reveals who HE is in some way It gives us G-d's perspective.

Actual Jewish custom can also bring insight but remember, this isn't for us to actually observe ritually, but to draw meaning from. In that case pay money vs cut off hand aren't really that different anymore. (Whew!)

 

[Frogster]

At least...

23:1 “No one whose testicles are crushed or whose male organ is cut off shall enter the assembly of the Lord.

 

[Frogster]

I have heard that if you have 3 Rabbis you have 5 opinions.

bugkiller

True. It took Paul to show them their own scriptures. Why do they get so mad at the guy?