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David and Jonathan

D

DMagoh

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You made the claim that there are no examples, so the burden of proof is on you. Saying that you can't find any examples and that no one else has proven that there are examples is not the same thing as saying that there are no examples.

This is an example of the fallacy of the excluded middle. It ignores the possibility that there are examples for which there is no proof one way or the other. And there are several examples of that type: Joseph and Potiphar, Daniel and Ashpenaz, David and Jonathan, Elijah and Elisha, Ruth and Naomi, Jehu and Jehonadab, and finally one that is hard to see as not being sexual, the centurion and his pais.

Care to try again?

If these were homosexual relationships, why didnt they say it? Why would you have to try to "read between the lines"?

It's funny, I get accused of "twisting scripture" when in black and white it says homosexaulity is sin, but you guys can make all kinds of assumptions about something that is NOT there in scripture, but that's NOT twisting scripture!
 
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GwynApNudd

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If these were homosexual relationships, why didnt they say it? Why would you have to try to "read between the lines"?


If you can back up your claim, why don't you. The formal rules of debate are that the person who makes a claim must back it up.

You made the claim that there are no homosexual relationships. A corollary of this claim is that all relationships that are in the Bible are non-homosexual in nature.

You claim to know that these were non-homosexual relationships. I made no similar claim.

If you can't back up your claim, then please retract it.


It's funny, I get accused of "twisting scripture" when in black and white it says homosexaulity is sin, but you guys can make all kinds of assumptions about something that is NOT there in scripture, but that's NOT twisting scripture!

It was your claim: you are the one making assumptions about things that are not in Scripture. If Scripture said that they were not homosexual, that wold be proof. If Scripture said that they were homosexual, that wold be proof. I specifically said that we don't have proof one way or the other.
 
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ReformedChapin

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I thing that the strongest point suggesting the Jonathan and David were more than just "friends" would be found in Samuel II; Chapter I verse 26. Upon learning of Jonathan's dead David states " I am distressed for you my brother Jonathan: You have been very pleasant (underline added) to me; Your love to me was wonderful, Surpassing the love of women."

To me, it can't get much clearer than that...these were David's words.
I call these homosexual pressupostions since pleasant can mean a number of things except sexual desire.
 
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ReformedChapin

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You made the claim that there are no examples, so the burden of proof is on you. Saying that you can't find any examples and that no one else has proven that there are examples is not the same thing as saying that there are no examples.

This is an example of the fallacy of the excluded middle. It ignores the possibility that there are examples for which there is no proof one way or the other. And there are several examples of that type: Joseph and Potiphar, Daniel and Ashpenaz, David and Jonathan, Elijah and Elisha, Ruth and Naomi, Jehu and Jehonadab, and finally one that is hard to see as not being sexual, the centurion and his pais.

Care to try again?
Actually the burden of proof is on you since there are clear scriptures that condem homosexuality is same to to assume that the bible would not contradict itself. Also your textual evidence (if you can call it that) is speculative at best.
 
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GwynApNudd

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Actually the burden of proof is on you ...



That's not the way logic and formal debate works.

DMagoh made a claim. He needs to support it.

My only only claim is his original "proof" contains a logical fallacy, the excluded middle. I backed up my claim by citing some of the objects in that excluded middle.

At this point, he must show that those objects are not in an excluded middle. That they belong to one of the exclusive classes (That is, He must show that either there is proof that they are homosexual relationships, or there is proof that they are non-homosexual relationships).

Failing to do that, he must retract his original claim.

The facts that he offered as "proof" of his original claim are still true, but they do not prove his original claim.
  • It is true that he can't find any relationships that the Bible definitively states are homosexual.
  • It is also true that no one else has offered any relationships that they can prove are homosexual.
  • But these two truths are not enough to prove DMagoh's claim that all of the relationships in the Bible are non-homosexual.
(DMagoh actually stated the claim as "There are no homosexual relationships in the Bible," but the way I phrased it is logically equivalent and provides a way of testing (proving) it.)

...since there are clear scriptures that condem homosexuality is same to to assume that the bible would not contradict itself.

But DMagoh was not basing his argument on verses that condemn homosexuality. He was basing it on the supposed fact that there are no homosexual relationships:

"So give us a break. D & J were not gay lovers. In fact, there are NO homosexual role models in the Bible. There are NO homosexual heros in the Bible. There are NO examples of homosexual marriage in the Bible. There are NO instructions for homosexual marriage in the Bible. The only homosexuals mentioned in the Bible are either destroyed or condemned. So tell me again how God thinks homosexual behavior is awesome and blessed?"

and

"Excuse me? I said there were NO examples in the Bible...I prove that by nobody being able to find any - see if YOU can find one. There arent any!

"I say again...the only homosexuals mentioned in the Bible are either destroyed or condemned. You can speculate about who was homosexual all you want - but any definite mentions of homosexuality is combined with either destruction or condemnation. Find me ONE verse that says anything positive about homosexuality."

Also your textual evidence (if you can call it that) is speculative at best.

One more time: I offered no evidence, nor did I need to. I made no claim. All I did was point out the logical flaw in DMagoh's argument
 
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GwynApNudd

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You claim homosexual behavior is not sin - prove it! Especially since anytime homosexuality is mentioned in the Bible, homosexuals are either being destroyed by God or condemned.

Show me where -- in this thread -- I claimed that homosexuality is not a sin.

In any thread where I make a claim, I back it up in that thread or I retract it.
 
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Der Alte

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[SIZE=-1]You rationalized your thoughts and make logical sense out of it, so you certainly can't be told you are wrong for what you believe. Again, however, it would be up to how someone interprets it. Perhaps David and Jonathan didn't ACT upon their feelings. Who's to say? I'd have no idea as I didn't walk the earth back then. What I do know is :

1 Samuel 20:41
After the boy had gone, David got up from the south side of the stone and bowed down before Jonathan three times, with is face to the ground. Then they kissed each other and wept together - but David wept the most.(NIV)​
Other translations have a different ending to the verse:

• …and they kissed one another and wept with one another, until David exceeded. (KJV)
• …and they kissed one another and wept with one another until David got control of himself. (Amplified Bible)
• and they sadly shook hands, tears running down their cheeks until David could weep no more. (Living Bible)
• They kissed each other and wept together until David got control of himself. (Modern Language)
• They kissed each other and wept aloud together. (New American Bible)
• Then David and Jonathan kissed each other. They cried together, but David cried the most. (New Century Version)
vThen they kissed one another and shed tears together, until David’s grief was even greater than Jonathan’s. (Revised English Bible)
• …and they kissed one another and wept with one another until David recovered himself. (Revised Standard Version)

How would a literalist interpret these scriptures? Certainly one could think there was some sort of homosexuality here, and perhaps just never acted on it. Again, I truly don't know. You may find it amusing..but whether it was the law or not..you think no one disobeyed the law in God's time...only now? That I think is amusing. No one is suggesting a passionate love affair between the two men..but certainly there was SOMETHING there rather than just two friends. If that were the case, it wouldn't have been any different than any relationships b/w two men, but these two were pointed out.[/SIZE]

If you want to know what the Hebrew scriptures mean ask Hebrew scholars not homosexuals with a highly biased agenda.

From the time of Moses, ca. 1200 BC, the Talmudic scholars interpreted the scriptures as condemning ALL homosexuals acts; by ALL persons, male and female; in ALL places, under ALL circumstance, at ALL times, NO exceptions.

The Talmudic scholars did NOT even mention, and did NOT limit the condemnation of homosexual acts to, “homosexual rape,” “temple prostitution,” pagan temples and/or religious activities!

Talmud -- Sanhedrin 54a

MISHNAH. HE WHO COMMITS SODOMY WITH A MALE OR A BEAST, AND A WOMAN THAT COMMITS BESTIALITY ARE STONED
. . . . Our Rabbis taught: If a man lieth also with mankind, as the lyings of a woman,29 both of them have committed on abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them,]. . . [Note: All upper case appears in the original]

Sanhedrin 54b

This teaches the punishment: whence do we derive the formal prohibition? — From the verse, Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is an abomination.[sup]1[/sup] . . . whence do we know a formal prohibition for the person who permits himself thus to be abused? — Scripture saith: There shall be no sodomite of the sons of Israel:[sup]2[/sup] and it is further said, . . .

Now, he who [actively] commits pederasty, and also [passively] permits himself to be thus abused — R. Abbahu said: On R. Ishmael's view, he is liable to two penalties, one [for the injunction] derived from thou shalt not lie with mankind, and the other for [violating the prohibition,] There shall not be a Sodomite of the sons of Israel. . . .

for there shall be no Sodomite applies to sodomy with mankind. [sup]13[/sup] . . .

Talmud link

<>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <>< <><

Jewish Encyclopedia - Dog

The shamelessness of the dog in regard to sexual life gave rise to the name ("dog") for the class of priests in the service of Astarte who practised sodomy ("kedeshim," called also by the Greeks &#954;&#965;&#957;&#945;&#943;&#948;&#959;&#953;, Deut. xxiii. 19 [A. V. 18]; compare ib. 18 [17] and Rev. xxii. 15; see Driver ad loc.), . . .(see "C. I. S." i., No. 86).

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=415&letter=D

Jewish Encyclopedia - Chastity

(e) The unnatural crimes against chastity, sodomy and pederasty, prevalent in heathendom, were strictly prohibited (Lev. xviii. 22, 23; xx. 13, 15, 16; Deut. xxvii. 21).

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=386&letter=C

Jewish Encyclopedia - DIDACHE -

Dependence upon Jewish Custom.


2: "Thou shalt not commit adultery" (Ex. xx. 14). (This includes: "Thou shalt not commit sodomy nor fornication.") "Thou shalt not steal" (Ex. xx. 15). . . .

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=341&letter=D

Jewish Encyclopedia - Crime

In three cases the person on the point of committing a crime may be killed: where he pursues a neighbor in order to kill him; where he pursues a male to commit sodomy;

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=301&letter=L

Jewish Encyclopedia - The 613 Commandments,: 3347-53.

Adultery, sodomy, etc. Lev. Xviii. 7, 14, 20, 22, 23.

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/view.jsp?artid=689&letter=C
The following citations document the interpretation by contemporary orthodox Jewish scholars.
"We Can't Legitimate Homosexuality Halakhically" (USCJ Review, Spring 2004): Joel Roth

The two verses in the book of (Leviticus (18:22 and 20:13) which deal with homosexuality are really quite clear, despite the efforts of some to call their clarity into question. (Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 absolutely forbid homosexual intercourse between males. The Rabbis, in the Sifra (Aharei Mot 9:8), also understand the Torah to forbid lesbianism. The Torah’s prohibitions, let it be clear, are against actions, like male homosexual intercourse, not against fantasies or attractions.

The Torah and the Rabbis do not distinguish between types of homosexuals in any way... The Rabbis were well able to conceive of monogamous and loving relationships between members of the same sex, and I quote in my paper the texts that prove this beyond reasonable question. But their words cannot possibly be read to imply that such monogamous or loving gay relationships are in a different halakhic [Jewish legal] category than any other relationships between members of the same sex. The prohibition is clear and total.”​

http://www.uscj.org/POINTRoth6331.html

Naomi Grossman, freelance journalist, states in her April 2001 article in Moment Magazine, "The Gay Orthodox Undergound":

"The Torah strictly forbids homosexual sex, and rabbis have consistently upheld that prohibition through the ages... The prohibition against homosexual sex comes from Leviticus: 'Do not lie with a male as one lies with a woman; it is an abhorrence' (18:22). In biblical times, the punishment for violating that code was clear. 'If a man lies with a male as one lies with a woman, the two of them have done an abhorrent thing; they shall be put to death -— their bloodguilt is upon them' (Leviticus 20:13). The Talmud extends the prohibition to lesbian sex [Hilchot Issurei Bi'ah 21:8]."

Official Orthodoxy makes no distinction between the sex act, which the Torah flatly prohibits, and homosexuality as a sexual identity.
"Homosexuality is not a state of being in traditional Judaism; it's an act," Freundel says. "Desires are … not relevant."​

http://members.aol.com/gayjews/moment.html
 
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GwynApNudd

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If you want to know what the Hebrew scriptures mean ask Hebrew scholars not homosexuals with a highly biased agenda.
<snip>


Strange.

Based on the fact that the post you criticized for poor Hebrew scholarship was examining 1 Samuel 20:41, one would expect that when you quote Hebrew scholars, you would quote their interpretation of 1 Samuel 20:41.

Leviticus 18:22 is not 1 Samuel 20:41.

Leviticus 20:13 is not 1 Samuel 20:41.

Deuteronomy 23:19 is not 1 Samuel 20:41

Deuteronomy 27:21 is not 1 Samuel 20:41

Exodus 20:14 is not 1 Samuel 20:41

How does any of that bear on interpreting 1 Samuel 20:41?

Even if it were to be conceded that a homosexual relationship between David and Jonathan would be a sin, the verses you referenced would not bear on the interpretation of 1 Samuel 20:14. We already know that David was not without sin. The Bible records his adultery with Bathsheba, and his subsequent murder of Uriah, her husband.
 
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Der Alte

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[SIZE=-1]Strange.

Based on the fact that the post you criticized for poor Hebrew scholarship was examining 1 Samuel 20:41, one would expect that when you quote Hebrew scholars, you would quote their interpretation of 1 Samuel 20:41.

Leviticus 18:22 is not 1 Samuel 20:41.

Leviticus 20:13 is not 1 Samuel 20:41.

Deuteronomy 23:19 is not 1 Samuel 20:41

Deuteronomy 27:21 is not 1 Samuel 20:41

Exodus 20:14 is not 1 Samuel 20:41

How does any of that bear on interpreting 1 Samuel 20:41?

Even if it were to be conceded that a homosexual relationship between David and Jonathan would be a sin, the verses you referenced would not bear on the interpretation of 1 Samuel 20:14. We already know that David was not without sin. The Bible records his adultery with Bathsheba, and his subsequent murder of Uriah, her husband.[/SIZE]

Read the second sentence in my post.
From the time of Moses, ca. 1200 BC, the Talmudic scholars interpreted the scriptures as condemning ALL homosexuals acts; by ALL persons, male and female; in ALL places, under ALL circumstance, at ALL times, NO exceptions.​
The relationship between David and Jonathan was being interpreted as openly homosexual. If anyone, king or commoner had, had an openly homosexual relationship they would have been stoned<period> end of story.
Lev 20:13 And if a man lie with mankind, as with womankind, both of them have committed abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.
 
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GwynApNudd

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And before anyone says "But the only reason someone would even look for a homosexual relationship between David and Jonathan is to prove that it's OK":

The motive of the querent is irrelevent if the study is accurate. But in order to discuss the accuracy of the study, you must discuss the study, not related, but distracting issues.

In this case that means that to criticize his translation of 1 Samuel 20:41 you must discuss how he translated 1 Samuel 20:41, or how the Hebrew scholars studied 1 Samuel 20:41, not how they interpreted Leviticus 20:13
 
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GwynApNudd

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Read the second sentence in my post.
From the time of Moses, ca. 1200 BC, the Talmudic scholars interpreted the scriptures as condemning ALL homosexuals acts; by ALL persons, male and female; in ALL places, under ALL circumstance, at ALL times, NO exceptions.​
The relationship between David and Jonathan was being interpreted as openly homosexual. If anyone, king or commoner had, had an openly homosexual relationship they would have been stoned<period> end of story.
Lev 20:13 And if a man lie with mankind, as with womankind, both of them have committed abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.​

Just like he was stoned for his adultery with Bathsheba? Or his murder of Uriah? What verse did that happen in?
 
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Der Alte

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[SIZE=-1]Just like he was stoned for his adultery with Bathsheba? Or his murder of Uriah? What verse did that happen in?[/SIZE]

Was David punished for either incident? David did not murder Uriah, he ordered him to be put in the forefront of the battle. Being in the forefront of a battle does not guarantee death. Bintherdunthatgotthetshirtdontfit.

And spare me your HS debating team hoohah.
 
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Epiphoskei

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He very well might have been stoned if the relationship were homosexual, but you can't simply assume that the abscence of the stoning proves the abscence of a homosexual relationship.

The absence of divine rebuke proves lack of relationship.
Every time David's sins were mentioned in the Bible, God rebuked him and punished him. Would God have demanded his stoning? Perhaps not, but it was sin under the law and God would have confronted him.
 
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brightmorningstar

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Dear TheFathersdaugther,
I don't believe that. Be careful to assume all homosexual Christian believe that.
I dont believe that, be careful not to base an assumption of who is Christian on what I beleve is a non-Christian viewpoint.
The point is, David couldnt have been a homosexual anyway as he later had women, he would be bisexual, unless of course you are saying his orientation changed.
In fact the passage begins by saying this was a spiritual relationship.
 
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brightmorningstar

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GwynApNud,
The motive of the querent is irrelevent if the study is accurate. But in order to discuss the accuracy of the study, you must discuss the study, not related, but distracting issues.
This is true. However in order to discuss the accuracy of the text one has to consider that the relationship between them is at the start described as a spiritual one. Secondly it helps to know that they were in the society that recognised same-sex sex as a punishable offense by death. Therefore one can assume, and I mean 'assume' that there was no offense because they were not stoned. You said one couldnt do that, one can assume that.
 
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IamRedeemed

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Amen DMagoh


I always find it amusing when people try to say that David and Jonathan were gay lovers. For one thing, they were in the Old Testament and were still under the laws in Leviticus. David would not have been caught dead "lying with a man as one lies with a woman".

If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable. They must be put to death; their blood will be on their own heads. Leviticus 20:13

And even if you stretch so far out to even think it might have been possible, it sure wouldnt have been public so that others knew about it and wrote about it in the Bible. And if he had, he would have been called on it and would have suffered consequences just like he did when he committed adultery with Bathsheba.

So give us a break. D & J were not gay lovers. In fact, there are NO homosexual role models in the Bible. There are NO homosexual heros in the Bible. There are NO examples of homosexual marriage in the Bible. There are NO instructions for homosexual marriage in the Bible. The only homosexuals mentioned in the Bible are either destroyed or condemned. So tell me again how God thinks homosexual behavior is awesome and blessed?
 
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