DogmaHunter
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- Jan 26, 2014
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My question assumes nothing, it is a question directed at you.
No.
Here's your question again:
IF the universe is such that makes life highly improbable according to such highly refined requirements but it has met those highly refined requirements what made that possible?
Notice the bolded part? That's where your assumption is embedded.
You assume that the reason for the universe to be the way it is, is to make life possible. And as formulated, you are asking me why that is the case.
It's just an obfuscated variation of "why do you hit your wife"?
Here's the question formulated so that it doesn't make such assumptions:
Why is the universe the way it is and could it have been any different?
And the answer to that is: we don't know, cosmologists are trying to find out (and priests pretend to know already before asking the question).
It was a question in regard to the actual condition of our universe. The values that we find are considered knowing what we do of what is required for life and how unlikely that is to occur by chance.
You can't calculate the probability of something if you only have a set of exactly 1 example. You also can't calculate the probability of something if you don't know the initial conditions of the system.
Whenever you argue that "chance couldn't have done it", you are by definition appealing to ignorance. Because it's impossible to properly calculate those chances for the reasons I just gave: your sample is to small and you have no idea what the initial conditions are.
As I've said so many times, for all you know, the probability of the universe to be the way it is is exactly 1 in 1.
Yes, it is possible but knowing what we know it is not a given.
We know next to nothing about the origin of the universe.
No, actually it is an argument from what is known.
...while appealing to what isn't known. Appeal to ignorance.
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