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The question was - what was the oldest texts that first century readers like Josephus had access to.
That's not true. You might want to look a little deeper into that subject. We don't have the autograph manuscripts; but there is evidence that at least some of them were not written in Greek.
Why would that matter? If Yahshua quotes it as scripture; it's scripture. It doesn't matter how old your copy is. Did Josephus accept Yahshua's canon? If not; then I'm not interested in his opinion of what defines the Canon.
Did Josephus have a phrase "Jesus' canon" in anything he wrote? His statement about no-change and the texts kept in the temple do not say "about which only Jesus knew" or any such thing. It is just a statement about which books were being tracked in the temple and which were not.
I remember this example right off the top of my head. It's just one of numerous examples of when Yahshua and his disciples quoted scripture that didn't bear the seal of approval from Josephus:
(CLV) Ju 1:14
Now Enoch, the seventh from Adam, prophesies to these also, saying, "Lo! the Lord came among ten thousand of His saints,
(CLV) Ju 1:15
to do judging against all, and to expose all the irreverent concerning all their irreverent acts in which they are irreverent, and concerning all the hard words which irreverent sinners speak against Him."
Enoch 2:1-2 Behold, he comes with ten thousands of his saints, to execute judgment upon them, and destroy the wicked, and reprove all the carnal for everything which the sinful and ungodly have done, and committed against him.
Should we toss out the book of Jude; because he was quoting scripture outside of the scriptures accepted by the imposters?
NT letters were written to NT Christians in all of the Roman empire - so they had to be in Greek and would be quoting the Greek OT when quoting the OT. But that would not have "changed the content" of the Hebrew Bible being kept in the Temple since the days of Ezra.
You said that all scholars agree on this. You are incorrect. Like I said before; you might want to dig a little deeper into this subject.
Here is just one source form an extensive amount of evidence contained in my notes.
https://www.hebroots.org/hebrootsarchive/0001/000126_e.html
1. Did Daniel switch from writing in Hebrew in Chapter 12 - to then write in Greek in Dan 13 - when writing to his 6th century B.C. Babylonian contemporaries?
2. Do any of your sources argue that Daniel 13 is to be dated older than the 3rd century B.C?
Out of the thousands of fragments found at Qumran, only 27 were written in Greek. What evidence do you have that 4Q551 was written in Greek.
Should we toss out Titus 1 because Paul quotes a source not in the Catholic Apocrypha or the Hebrew Bible?
I have never argued that the only texts that existed at that time were Greek, but the text - if it was in Septuagint - would have been Greek.
and the suggestion is that all of it was Hebrew -- to start with ... if that were true -- how in the world could you have "That is -- “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” in Greek added if the reader is Hebrew?? It makes no sense to offer a greek translation for your Hebrew reader as you write your text in Hebrew.
Should we toss out Titus 1 because Paul quotes a source not in the Catholic Apocrypha or the Hebrew Bible?
Jerome is an authority for this division, he (Luther) cited St. Jerome, who in the early 5th century distinguished the Hebrew and Greek Old Testaments,[4] stating that books not found in the Hebrew were not received as canonical. Although his statement was controversial in his day,[5] Jerome was later titled a Doctor of the Church and his authority was also cited in the Anglican statement in 1571 of the Thirty-Nine Articles.[6]
Doesn't this help explain why Jerome who wrote the Latin Vulgate for the Catholic Church insisted that Dan 13 is not canonical?
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