Could Jesus Sin?

[Robbie_James_Francis]

Read all my posts...it can be somewhat confusing (as it is a complex topic), but you'll see that I agree with the orthodox position

I think I get it.

 

[Blackhawk]

You are correct.



I am not entirely sure what you are saying. If you mean that the Divine nature is itself unable to suffer, and the suffering was only possible because of the hypostatic union with the human nature, I can agree. If you mean that Divine nature did not suffer, St Cyril addressed this in his twelfth anathema:

12. If anyone does not confess that the Word of God suffered in the flesh and was crucified in the flesh and tasted death in the flesh and became the first born of the dead, although as God he is life and life-giving, let him be anathema.​

But you forget about the communication of idioms. Cyril was NOt saying that Jesus' divinity suffered when he said God suffered. In fact in many place s he says the exact opposite. It is rahter confusioning but he states the Jesus suffered impassibly. Or that the divine nature took the suffering of the human nature as its own. But anyways the communication of idioms helps us state that the one subject Jesus Christ (Word of GOd) suffered while meaning that only one nature suffered. Jesus was one person with two natures that were never divided but never confused.

 

[Simonline]

But you forget about the communication of idioms. Cyril was NOt saying that Jesus' divinity suffered when he said God suffered. In fact in many place s he says the exact opposite. It is rahter confusioning but he states the Jesus suffered impassibly. Or that the divine nature took the suffering of the human nature as its own. But anyways the communication of idioms helps us state that the one subject Jesus Christ (Word of GOd) suffered while meaning that only one nature suffered. Jesus was one person with two natures that were never divided but never confused.

Indeed, the Divine Nature is, by definition, impervious both to sin and death (though not suffering) which is why the eternally begotten Son/Word of God HAD to incarnate and become human in order to taste death for us all (and in so doing, be our atoning sacrifice), something which is absolutely impossible for the Divine Nature (1Tim.6:15(b)-16).

This was the reason for which the Messiah gave thanks at the Last Supper. The Bread represented the Incarnation and it was for the possibility of being able to incarnate (and so being able to die for the sins of the whole world (Heb.12:2) - represented by the breaking of the bread) that the Messiah gave thanks...as was also the case with the contents of the cup which represented his blood (blood which he would never have had if it were not possible for him to incarnate).

Simonline.

 

[Blackhawk]

Indeed, the Divine Nature is, by definition, impervious both to sin and death (though not suffering) which is why the eternally begotten Son/Word of God HAD to incarnate and become human in order to taste death for us all (and in so doing, be our atoning sacrifice), something which is absolutely impossible for the Divine Nature (1Tim.6:15(b)-16).

This was the reason for which the Messiah gave thanks at the Last Supper. The Bread represented the Incarnation and it was for the possibility of being able to incarnate (and so being able to die for the sins of the whole world (Heb.12:2) - represented by the breaking of the bread) that the Messiah gave thanks...as was also the case with the contents of the cup which represented his blood (blood which he would never have had if it were not possible for him to incarnate).

Simonline.

I agree.

 

[.Mikha'el.]

From another thread, I bring this quotation:


Can you back up this statement?

I would say that Jesus was not capable of sinning. 1 John 3:9a, in Paladin's favorite NRSV, says, "Those who have been born of God do not sin, because God's seed abides in them."

Now, I'm going to run with an assumption that when Scripture talks of "those who have been born of God," then whatever it says about "those" is applicable to Jesus. Let me continue with that verse. It says that "they [those who have been born of God] cannot sin, because they have been born of God."

My conclusion is that Jesus cannot sin, nor could He have, nor will He ever be able to.

Matthew 4:7

"Then Jesus was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil."

If that were true, then there would have been no point in the Holy Spirit leading him to the desert to be tempted. I think He certainly had the capacity to sin, but chose not to.

 

[Silverlin]

Jesus the 'mortal' man could sin. Christ{The divine manifestation of God} could not.
Christ Jesus is at one with God and therefore cannot sin.
Jesus is not God, but at one with the Father.
If Jesus the son of God was not at one with the Father he could have sinned, but in Truth this is impossible. When Jesus the man knew and exampled the truth of Christ he was not able to sin.
However did the man Jesus always know this truth of Christ? "And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom.." This is saying Jesus grew in understanding.
To know God one must have percieved separation from Him to be conscience of what is good. Jesus the man must have 'sinned{percieved separation of God}' while growing in the understanding and knowledge of the Lord God, or also he would have had no need for baptism.
"he that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone" no one through a stone, not even Jesus, "neither do i condemn thee"
The only thing that is without sin is God and if we reflect that and example this like Christ Jesus, neither do we sin. Only in our perception of separation from God do we sin, for God is all in all.

 

[Aningat]

cross-preacher.com

 

[Blackhawk]

Jesus the 'mortal' man could sin. Christ{The divine manifestation of God} could not.
Christ Jesus is at one with God and therefore cannot sin.
Jesus is not God, but at one with the Father.
If Jesus the son of God was not at one with the Father he could have sinned, but in Truth this is impossible. When Jesus the man knew and exampled the truth of Christ he was not able to sin.
However did the man Jesus always know this truth of Christ? "And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom.." This is saying Jesus grew in understanding.
To know God one must have percieved separation from Him to be conscience of what is good. Jesus the man must have 'sinned{percieved separation of God}' while growing in the understanding and knowledge of the Lord God, or also he would have had no need for baptism.
"he that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone" no one through a stone, not even Jesus, "neither do i condemn thee"
The only thing that is without sin is God and if we reflect that and example this like Christ Jesus, neither do we sin. Only in our perception of separation from God do we sin, for God is all in all.

I do not know exactly which heresy this post falls under but it surely does. It has some Nestorian, Arian, and pantheistic tones about it. Jesus is God. Plain and simple. There is no buts about it. There is no seperation between man and the God. Jesus is one person with two natures that are not seperated but also not confused. Sure we can become one with Christ but it is a mystical union.

You also stated that Jesus the man must of sinned and that is heretical also. JESUS NEVER EVER SINNED. The Bible and all of church history and tradition(s) is clear on this.

 

[Seaioth]

Jesus is fully God and fully man.

Without His diety, certainly Jesus could have sinned. But thats a highly hypothetical case...

 

[Simonline]

Post deleted.

 

[Simonline]

Post deleted.

 

[DeaconDean]

Could He? Yes. Did He? NO!

 

[Simonline]

Post deleted.

 

[Easystreet]

From another thread, I bring this quotation:


Can you back up this statement?

I would say that Jesus was not capable of sinning. 1 John 3:9a, in Paladin's favorite NRSV, says, "Those who have been born of God do not sin, because God's seed abides in them."

Now, I'm going to run with an assumption that when Scripture talks of "those who have been born of God," then whatever it says about "those" is applicable to Jesus. Let me continue with that verse. It says that "they [those who have been born of God] cannot sin, because they have been born of God."

My conclusion is that Jesus cannot sin, nor could He have, nor will He ever be able to.

I agree Jesus could not have sinned, He is God.

Gordon

 

[PaladinValer]

Then that isn't orthodox. Jesus was tempted in all ways yet did not sin. Did not implies that He had the choice but chose not too.

 

[BrandonGray]

able but not willing