Hi CJ,
Catholic dogma is against any kind of birth control.
Thank you for re-entering the discussion, you give unique perspective....
Debbie, it's called "FAMILY PLANNING" by the RCC itself. WHAT, exactly, is being planned? It's not producing or not producing husbands or wives or marriages, it's entirely about producing or not producing children via conception and births. Is that correct? By definition, then, the ONLY possiblity is that it's Birth Control. Isn't that correct? IF so, why not say it is what it is?
IF nothing is being planned, if nothing is being controlled, then there's nothing to pay any attention to, nothing to discuss, no threads on it are possible. No classes are needed, no methods need to be taught, no counting, no calendars, no regard. The RCC itself calls it "FAMILY (children, conception, birth) PLANNING." Isn't this so?
I would suspect if the intent is not to control in any regard concerning conception, then couples would be told to "do what comes naturally" and let GOD do whatever God does in this regard (and one of my Catholic teachers told me that largely WAS the teaching before the sexual revolution; and if one (for whatever sound reason) intented no children, then they should have no sex, "No kids? No sex!" - but that was 50+ years ago). The goal is PLANNING births (not allowing something uncontrolled to happen), is it not?
They don't want Catholics to even practice NFP even...
My sister was REQUIRED to take a class in it. Odd way to discourage it, don't you think?
It was taught right there at the Parish Center. It was all presented as the "alternative to 'the pill,' condoms, etc." While I understand it DID include a brief note that this actually COULD be used for couples having problems conceiving, the entire focus was on why the "pill" is bad and why Catholic Family Planning is a better way to avoid pregnancy (or at least
CONTROL births).
1. I invite you to read all the posts in this thread - by Catholics and Orthodox. Read them; read them all.
2. Why then is the whole point to have sex during infertile times and not in fertile times? OF COURSE, the RCC knows that this has only one possible purpose and result. Surely, it does!
They are required by Church dogma to be open to pro-creation and giving life always.
... as one normally is that uses a condom; using that during the month of June, 2011 does NOT mandate that ergo they are against pregnancy.
Again, CERTAINLY the RCC knows that purposely using methods taught by the RCC to AVOID sex during fertile times has one result. That is, by definition, contraceptive. I find it
impossible, logically, to conclude otherwise. Could you explain?
Thank you.
Pax
- Josiah
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