kayanne said:
Thanks for
attempting to clarify, but I think I'm gonna be pretty stubborn on this one.
You have met your stubborn match, Kayanne.
kayanne said:
Nope, sorry, still don't see it.
You said "condoms do remove the procreative aspect," but as I said earlier, they don't remove it statistically as well as NFP does. And it sure does seem to me that if a couple is following a calendar, thermometer readings, or whatever else is involved with NFP, they are pretty clearly trying to remove the procreative aspect of their sex life. Sure, there's no physical barrier (ie condom) on those occassions when they do have sex, but a situation of "Oh, honey, we can't tonight.....we need to wait about 4 more days." You said
"A couple may try to prevent conception by determining a woman's fertile time and abstaining during that time. But because they are not having sex, they are not removing that aspect." To me, avoiding sex during the fertile time is every bit as much attempting to remove the procreative aspect (or more) than using a condom is.
Ok, I'm still not explaining it clearly enough then, because this part isn't really even an argument about NFP itself.
I can tell that you understand the: unitive + procreative = entire sexual act, and yet it must not be completely, because that's where I see the gap.
The two aspects are parts of the sexual act. So if a person isn't engaging in this activity, neither aspect is involved. Does that make sense? So if a couple isn't engaging in sexual activity, they cannot be removing either aspect, because they are not participating in the activity at all. You can't remove anything from an activity you're not doing.
But if a couple engages in sexual activity with birth control (any form, though you used condoms specifically as your example), they are removing the procreative aspect. They
are participating in the sexual act, and therefore one one the aspects
can be removed. Is that making sense?
I'm not even trying to convince you about NFP right now, I'm just trying to get you to understand the distinction, because there really is a difference. And, as I said, I'm stubborn.
So let's move on to another question. What if a woman who either a) became catholic after getting married, or b) was already catholic but she and her husband now disagree on the issue of bc.
What is she to do if her husband wishes/insists that they use some form of bc? As a catholic, is she more obligated to submit to her husband on this issue, or refuse her husband in order to do what the cath church tells her to do?
I guess I don't know what the Church would teach on this. Contraception in any form is gravely sinful, according to Catholic belief, so the Church certainly wouldn't support that. If the husband forced it, he would be causing her to sin, while sinning himself. But this isn't really something I can speak of at length, because I'd only be speculating. This would definitely be something to ask in OBOB, because there are others who are more knowledgeable about this than I.