Christ's 2nd Coming was in the 1st Century -- 7 Proofs

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parousia70

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Originally posted by GTX
Actually, lets make that between 80 and 95 AD. You don't discount the book of revelation do you?

OK GTX, time to tune up your "automator" and provide scriptural evidence that Revelation was written when you contend it was. Heck, I'll make it even easier....the evidence doesen't need to be scriptural, any evidence will do.

Are you up to the challenge?
Can you back up your assertion with facts?

I eagerly await in joyful anticipation for your scholarly, if automated, response.
 
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Originally posted by GTX
Not you npetreley, you are not a Transmillenialist (preterist) are you?

40%? I can get a better deal!

No, I am not a preterist. I do believe that the most popular interpretations of prophecy (particularly pre-trib rapture and possibly even the postponement of Daniel's 70th week) have many problems, however.
 
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Originally posted by parousia70

I eagerly await in joyful anticipation for your scholarly, if automated, response.

I know you weren't asking me, but here's an interesting essay.

http://www.covenanter.org/Postmil/AntiPreterist/ponddate.htm

There's a lot there, but this is what I find particularly interesting. You may not give weight to such things, so perhaps you won't find it as interesting.


By the way, I didn't notice the "AntiPreterist" in the URL at first. But I don't get the impression that it was written for that purpose. (In fact, I don't even know if preterism was around in 1871 when this was written.)
 
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GTX

<font size=1><font color=gray><b>Rapid Transit Aut
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I will try to make it as automated as possible.

The strength of the late '60's date rests on the popular myth of that period that the deranged emperor Nero would be revived. This myth parallels much of the imagry of chapter 13's reference to "the temple of God" and the "alter" in Jerusalem, which were both destroyed in 70 AD, also supports the earlier dating.

But the later date, near the end of Domitians reign as emperor [81-96 AD], is far more likely. The picture of suffering seen in Revelation seems closer to what is known of the persecution under Domitian. There is also the statement of Irenaeus, in about 185 AD, that John wrote Revelation at the close of Domitians reign. This would be around 95 AD.

Also you are discounting the literal scripture of bodily resurrection as clearly described by Job.
 
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parousia70

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That's an interesting theory, but my question was about the evidence for the "late date".
We can get into the early date evidence next


So, your "evidence" that it was written post 70AD is:
A) it seems more likely to you.
B) Ireneaus said it was

If you'd like to add anything else, please go ahead, and then we can add up the evidence, scriptural and otherwise, for the early date, and compare side by side.

Originally posted by GTX
Also you are discounting the literal scripture of bodily resurrection as clearly described by Job? [/B]

I've addressed that question of yours in another thread, and it can be found here:
http://www.christianforums.com/forums/showthread.php?s=&postid=223481#post223481

God Bless
 
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You are going to run into problems with that kind of statement. The problem with this [Domitian date] theory is that there is no evidence that during the last decade of the first century there occurred any open and systematic persecution of the church.

[automator disengaged]
 
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From the essay linked above:

Jerome, in his book of illustrious men, says: 'Domitian, in the fourteenth year of his reign, raised the next persecution after Nero, when John was banished to the isle of Patmos, where he wrote the Revelation.'
 
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Originally posted by Manifestation1*AD70

That is not recorded as a fact.

Huh? Unless you were there at the time, then all we have to rely on are historical records. Jerome, Irenaeus, and others said that there was such a persecution. I wasn't there, so I can't say for sure, but the fact that these people lived fairly close to the times of the events certainly bolsters the credibility of their statements.
 
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ArtistEd

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Hi GTX,
thought you might find this interesting.

Robert Young (1885)
"It was written in Patmos about A.D.68, whither John had been banished by Domitious Nero, as stated in the title of the Syriac version of the book ; and with this concurs the express statement of Irenaeus in A.D.175, who says it happened in the reign of Domitianou -- ie., Domitious (Nero). Sulpicius, Orosius, etc., stupidly mistaking Domitianou for Domitianikos, supposed Irenaeus to refer to Domition, A.D. 95, and most succeeding writers have fallen into the same blunder. The internal testimony is wholly in favor of the earlier date." (Commentary on Revelation - Young's Analytical Concordance)

Ed
 
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What he says is possible, but it assumes that Sulpicius and others based their information on what Irenaeus wrote. I don't know if that is a fair assumption. Based on what I've read, some scholars feel it is not a reasonable assumption, but some think it is. I don't have an opinion either way - I'd have to study the works of the contemporaries of Irenaeus to form an opinion.
 
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