Christian Marriage/Divorce /Re-Marriage statutes

Cuddles333

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With the number of threads on the same-sex issue I think it best for us all to know if we even understand just what is true Christian Marriage and valid Christian Re-Marriage.
I believe that many who voice disapproval of same-sex marriage, are even aware that they may not be in a valid marriage themselves per the statutes of the New Testament.
There are only 3 means of valid Christian re-marriage:
1. Desertion by the non-Christian spouse. (1Cor.7:15)
2. Death of believing or non-believing spouse. (Rom. 7:1)
3. Fornication of the believing or unbelieving spouse. (Mt. 19:9) A near impossibility for occurrence today per the 1st century definition.

I will accept the challenge by one who believes he/she can find a way through or around these New Testament statutes.
 
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JoeP222w

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The existence of divorce or even an invalid re-marriage in no way refutes that God has defined homosexuality to be sin. Any use of such an argument, that is, that those who would argue that homosexuality is righteous based on the fact that Christians get divorces, is a complete Red Herring argument.

This would be similar to justifying murder because Christians sometimes lie. It is an invalid argument.

The existence of one sin does not make another sin to be righteous.
 
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Adstar

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With the number of threads on the same-sex issue I think it best for us all to know if we even understand just what is true Christian Marriage and valid Christian Re-Marriage.
I believe that many who voice disapproval of same-sex marriage, are even aware that they may not be in a valid marriage themselves per the statutes of the New Testament.
There are only 3 means of valid Christian re-marriage:
1. Desertion by the non-Christian spouse. (1Cor.7:15)
2. Death of believing or non-believing spouse. (Rom. 7:1)
3. Fornication of the believing or unbelieving spouse. (Mt. 19:9) A near impossibility for occurrence today per the 1st century definition.

I will accept the challenge by one who believes he/she can find a way through or around these New Testament statutes.

""""3. Fornication of the believing or unbelieving spouse. (Mt. 19:9) A near impossibility for occurrence today per the 1st century definition.""""

Please explain the bolded/underlined part?
 
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