It goes back further then that:
- ST. IRENAEUS (c. 180 AD) "But this man [of whom I have been speaking] is Adam, if truth be told, the first-formed man"
- TERTULLIAN (c. 200 AD) "And if we are all made to live in Christ as WE were made to DIE IN ADAM, then, as in the flesh we were made to DIE IN ADAM, so also in the flesh are we made to live in Christ."
- ORIGEN (c. 244 AD) "IN ADAM ALL DIE, and THUS the world FALLS PROSTRATE and requires to be SET UP AGAIN, so that in Christ all may be made to live [1 Cor 15:22]."
The Early Church Fathers, every Christian tradition and the New Testament writers all understood Adam to be our first parent. I'm not pulling this out of my hat and you know full well that your interpretation of the Genesis accounts did not exist until the advent of Darwinism.
You are certainly pulling the NT writers claim out of your hat. As for the church fathers, you have not addressed my point that it is a fallacious Appeal to Antiquity, and an inconsistent one at that, since you haven't repudiated your protestant revisionism and returned to the Catholic Church or the Orthodox. Of course Luther and Calvin were right to overturn tradition and go back to scripture. Your problem is embracing the revised theology of the Reformation while appealing here to the absolute authority of tradition and the Church Fathers.
Your hermeneutics are flawed and fallacious, when the Scriptures are using a metaphor it is almost always indicated in the immediate context.
Nah, it is just that you are only able to recognise passages are metaphors where it is clearly indicated in the immediate context. You have just illustrated this beautifully over in your thread
Christian Faith Requires the Acceptance of Creationism, where you didn't realise Jesus being 'the light shining in the darkness' was a metaphor. Of course you don't take it literally, you wouldn't for a minute think Jesus saved Joseph a small fortune in lamp oil lighting up the carpentry shop when he worked there. You don't take it literally, you just think you are taking it literally. And because you think all these passages are literal, you come to the strange conclusion metaphors are almost always indicated in the immediate context
In the case of Adam the passage in Genesis is clearly understood to be an historical narrative, not a metaphor for humanity.
Yes I know you
assume it is a historical narrative. Yet God the potter making people from clay is a very common biblical metaphor, everywhere else this is interpreted metaphorically. Of course the very same imagery in Genesis can't possible be yet another instance of this very common biblical metaphor.
Throughout the New Testament when Adam is described as and understood to be created, not evolved from predecessors.
Is this you assuming you know how the NT writers understood Adam?
That is not an argument from antiquity
Of course not. This is looking at scripture, eisegesis of course, but your understanding of scripture none the less. The fallacious Appeal to Antiquity is when you try to answer a discussion about scripture by claiming we must follow the traditions of the (church) fathers.
(an expression you made up)
Let me google that for you
but an appeal to the absolute authority of Scripture. You don't get to dismiss what you don't believe about the Bible by labeling it a metaphor, your problem is that you don't believe the Genesis account, not that it's too old to be literal.
And yet the bible is full of metaphors, what is wrong with understanding biblical metaphors as metaphors, why ever would a follower of Jesus Christ who loved to teach in parables and metaphors think the only way to believe the bible is to take it literally?
I'm not chasing this this around the mulberry bush with you. You are mixing metaphor with historical narratives and it's a deeply flawed 19th century philosophy, not a sound hermeneutic of the clear testimony of Scripture.
So all you can do is claim this very common biblical metaphor is being used literally in Genesis, you can't show that it is, or explain why this is the one place in the bible where this common biblical imagery is literal.
There is no indication that Moses is using 'Adam' as a metaphor,
How about Genesis 5:2 where Adam is is explained as the name God gave the people he created, male and female, and not just the name of an individual? Gen 5:2
He created them male and female, and blessed them, and called their name “Adam,” in the day when they were created.
How about Genesis 6 where the flood is describes as God destroying Adam, even though Adam is supposed to have died before the flood
Gen 6:7
So the LORD said, “I will wipe Adam, whom I have created from the surface of the ground; Adam, along with animals, creeping things, and birds of the sky; for I am sorry that I have made them."
Of course you will be hard pressed to find a translation that translates
adm as Adam, but the context is clearly talking about the creation, God creating and making
adm and all the animals and birds.
And of course we know Moses used the fictional character Jeshurun as a metaphor for the Israelites and told their story as an extended metaphor in the hymn of Jeshurun in Deuteronomy 32&33
Apart from telling us Adam was a figure of Christ?
Jesus never mentioned Adam and Eve, the nearest you have is quoting the creation stories in Genesis, not to teach a literalist interpretation of the creation accounts, but as a lesson about marriage and divorce.
Your awkward insistence that this is some kind of a clay metaphor is absurd and fails every test of Scripture.
’Some kind of clay metaphor’? You mean the very common biblical potter and clay metaphor?
Mark:Paul always speaks of Adam as the first parent of humanity,
Assyrian: Where does he say that? Don't you get embarrassed quoting 2Peter 3 while misrepresenting what Paul says?
The Scriptures offer an explanation for man's fallen nature, how we inherited it exactly is not important
OK so Paul didn’t speak of Adam as the first parent of humanity.
but when Adam and Eve sinned we did not fast. This is affirmed in the New Testament in no uncertain terms by Luke in his genealogy, in Paul's exposition of the Gospel in Romans and even Jesus called the marriage of Adam and Eve 'the beginning'.
Jesus didn’t mention Adam and Eve, he didn’t mention the marriage of Adam and Eve, he did however quote Genesis as a lesson in marriage in divorce for us. You are reading things into scripture, thinking because you interpret Genesis that way, then if Jesus quoted the passage he must interpret it the way you do. That is eisegesis. Your quote about fasting is Basil not scripture and it is not affirmed by the NT. Luke says nothing in the genealogy either about fasting or about Adam being the first parent of humanity, nor does Paul say anything about Adam being the first parent of humanity in Romans.
According to Paul:
Sin came as the result of, 'many died by the trespass of the one man' (Rom. 5:15), 'judgment followed one sin and brought condemnation' (Rom. 5:16), the trespass of the one man, death reigned through that one man (Rom. 5:17), 'just as the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men' (Rom. 5:18), 'through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners' (Rom. 5:19).
Paul says repeatedly that sin was the result of one sin/trespass and Paul identifies that man as Adam.
What has this got to do with you claim “Paul always speaks of Adam as the first parent of humanity”?
Bear in mind that our Lord’s patience means salvation, just as our dear brother Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him. He writes the same way in all his letters, speaking in them of these matters. His letters contain some things that are hard to understand, which ignorant and unstable people distort, as they do the other Scriptures, to their own destruction. (II Peter 3:15.16)
The Scriptures are crystal clear, in Adam all sinned and there is no orthodox Christian doctrine to the contrary. Don't you get tired of being wrong about everything you preach on these boards, distorting the Scriptures to fit your naturalistic assumptions.
Wow you quote 2Peter 3 again about ignorant and unstable people distorting what Paul says, and
again you distort scripture. Where does the bible say in Adam all sinned?
Paul always speaks of Adam as the first parent of humanity… as do all New Testament writers.
I'm not the one distorting and twisting the Scriptures here, you have never made a single point stick and you have been refuted countless times. You can't make the most basic exposition of the requisite text without conflating an historical narrative with a metaphor in an unrelated text. You are begging the question of proof on your hands and knees and want to make a scathing indictment based on that.
It's sad really but all too common.
So where do all the New Testament writers say Adam was the first parent of humanity? Instead of saying “no you are” why not back up your claim and show you aren’t distorting scripture, why not show us where all the NT writers say this, why not show us even one of the NT writers saying Adam was the first parent of humanity? (St Basil doesn’t really count as a NT writer.)
You try to argue that Paul is speaking of Adam figuratively Paul makes this statement regarding Adam. Because the King James Bible translates tupos (G5179 τύπος

as 'figure' you pretend it means that Adam is a figure of speech.
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. (Romans 5:14)
This is not how that word is used in the original. The word actually means:
From G5180; a die (as struck), that is, (by implication) a stamp or scar; by analogy a shape, that is, a statue, (figuratively) style or resemblance; specifically a sampler (“type”

, that is, a model (for imitation) or instance (for warning) (Strong's Exhaustive Concordance)
This is how the word is used in other passages:
tupoi
1 Cor 10:6, here it means literal idolaters are examples of what not to do.
1 Cor 10:11, here it means literal people who murmured, same meaning.
1 Pe 5:3, here it means literal leaders of the church are examples not Lords.
tupon
John 20:25, Here it means the literal print of the nail in Jesus hand.
John 20:25, Here it means the same thing.
Acts 7:44, Here it means a literal pattern.
Acts 23:25, Here it means the manner in which a letter is literally written.
Rom 6:17, Here it means a literal doctrine.
Php 3:17, Here it means a literal Paul and his companions.
2 Th 3:9, Same meaning here.
Titus 2:7, Here it means a literal pattern of good works.
Heb 8:5, Here is means literal Christians.
tupoV
Rom 5:14, Here it means a literal Adam
1 Ti 4:12 Here it means the literal Timothy be an example to others.
tupouV
Acts 7:43, here it means a literal idol, that represents a pagan god.
1 Th 1:7, here it means that literal believers are to be examples to other believers.
Paul also makes mention of Adam in his first letter to the Corinthians. There is no indication that Paul is speaking figuratively of Adam:
For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive. (1 Corinthians 15:22)
So it is written: "The first man Adam became a living being"; the last Adam, a life-giving spirit. (1 Corinthians 15:45)
Not once have you done a competent exposition of the requisite text and repeatedly shown that your false teaching regarding them is in error. Yet you still make these scathing indictments distorting the Scriptures to your own harm. I am not offended, I pity you Assyrian.
So let's review our history with this half baked bible study you keep posting.
The first time I challenged you,
http://www.christianforums.com/t7519755-3/#post56447292 you gave a half hearted attempt at a defense and when I took that apart,
http://www.christianforums.com/t7519755-4/#post56462122 you just gave up.
The second time I challenged on it,
http://www.christianforums.com/t7532860-10/#post57030658 you never even replied.
The third time, I just referred back to the previous posts you could not answer.
http://www.christianforums.com/t7524679-10/#post57370591
All you could say in defense was “I don't care about those links”.
There are no arguments just shallow rationalizations.
Or at least no arguments you can address. That’s fine Mark, don’t worry about it..
So because Paul used the common biblical metaphor of God as a potter...
No he did not and you know it.
What are you trying to claim Mark? That the imagery of God as a potter is not a metaphor? Some are similes but I don’t really think that helps you wriggle out of this common biblical imagery. That it is not common? I quoted a whole series of passages that use this imagery, which you edited out in your reply. That Paul wasn’t referring back to the potter imagery from the OT? In just the previous verse, Rom 9:20, Paul quotes Isaiah 29:16 and the imagery of the clay talking back to the potter.
The Bible does not speak to astronomy, it does speak to human ancestry and it begins with Adam. Why don't you just abandon these fallacious arguments and try something substantive? Could it be that you don't have anything?
The bible talks about the movement of the sun and moon, and the earth being fixed and immovable which everyone interpreted literally as the sun going round a stationary earth before Copernicus. The bible also talks of God making people from clay, and one of these passages people have taken literally too. Why was the church right to revise its geocentric interpretations but wrong to revise its interpretation of Adam being made from clay? You can’t just say it doesn’t speak of astronomy but it does speak of human ancestry. All that tells us is which interpretation
you believe in. It doesn’t tell us which interpretations the church should give up when faced with scientific developments and which interpretation it should hold onto, or how to tell them apart.