Yes, the consent given to sex. This is different then consent to being pregnant.consent (v.)
"c. 1300, "agree, give assent; yield when one has the right, power, or will to oppose," from Old French consentir "agree; comply" (12c.) and directly from Latin consentire "agree, accord," literally "feel together," from assimilated form of com "with, together" (see con-) + sentire "to feel" (see sense (n.)).
"Feeling together," hence, "agreeing, giving permission," a sense evolution that apparently took place in French before the word reached English." Source
By that definition, the consent given to have unprotected sex is a free will choice to engage in risky behaviour, regardless of the outcome. I'm not talking about your analogy, I'm talking about 2 consenting adults. this is the group of people that have the highest amount of abortions according to the statistics.
I'm curious, if the people having sex are using contraceptives does your opinion of them giving consent to pregnancy change? If not then the state of their using contraceptives or not is superfluous to your claim.
Upvote
0