Chanter,
I have read through all of the accounts of The Last Supper and I have found a couple of things. First, I notice that the disciples approach Him just before the feast of unleavened bread (Passover) and ask Him where He would like them to prepare the meal for Him. It strikes me that The Last Supper does seem to occur on this (Passover) event. I notice that none of the Disciples present, question Jesus as to why they are using leavened bread when it is the feast of the unleavened bread. This means one of the following things to me. Either A) They were not eating together on Passover as it seems to be indicated, or B) They were eating on Passover but using leavened bread and no one bothered to question it at all, or C) They were indeed eating on Passover and using unleavened bread.
Now, I am not sure what the real signifigance of this is. Meaning, for me I cannot understand what the difference is when the bread we eat essentially is Christ anyway and not bread. But still I think this is sort of important to some and therefore I trust there must be a reason.
Does anyone have any thoughts on this? What is the reason that Catholics use unleavened and Orthodoxy uses leavened Bread?
This must have been a pretty big issue at one point to have been partly responsible for the Schism. I am guessing someone more knowledgable here will have the answer.
I did see something about Jesus saying "It is not the leaven of your bread it is the leaven of your hearts" that's not a direct quote but it's close. I am wondering whether this might be what He meant? That we didn't have to use unleavened bread?
I have read through all of the accounts of The Last Supper and I have found a couple of things. First, I notice that the disciples approach Him just before the feast of unleavened bread (Passover) and ask Him where He would like them to prepare the meal for Him. It strikes me that The Last Supper does seem to occur on this (Passover) event. I notice that none of the Disciples present, question Jesus as to why they are using leavened bread when it is the feast of the unleavened bread. This means one of the following things to me. Either A) They were not eating together on Passover as it seems to be indicated, or B) They were eating on Passover but using leavened bread and no one bothered to question it at all, or C) They were indeed eating on Passover and using unleavened bread.
Now, I am not sure what the real signifigance of this is. Meaning, for me I cannot understand what the difference is when the bread we eat essentially is Christ anyway and not bread. But still I think this is sort of important to some and therefore I trust there must be a reason.
Does anyone have any thoughts on this? What is the reason that Catholics use unleavened and Orthodoxy uses leavened Bread?
This must have been a pretty big issue at one point to have been partly responsible for the Schism. I am guessing someone more knowledgable here will have the answer.
I did see something about Jesus saying "It is not the leaven of your bread it is the leaven of your hearts" that's not a direct quote but it's close. I am wondering whether this might be what He meant? That we didn't have to use unleavened bread?