- Oct 12, 2003
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here's an example ... Adam is accused by the church of sinning in eating the forbidden fruit, but scripture says that amn is innocent if he offends in ignorance of the rules ... clearly Adam did not know good from evil until after he ate the fruit, so he was innocent and that is thus not a sin, let alone the 'original sin' of traditions of men...
another more lengthy examle below ...
There is far more written in scripture about Israel , the decendants of Jacob , and their forbears, than about Jesus ... it is only modern christianity that acquired the habit of writnig Israel out of their own history and the story of their God in scripture ... thus this should read interpret scripture from the point of view of Israel ... in connection with this we find that Jesus was only sent by god to reach the scattered remnants of the 'House of Israel', a whole nation, much larger than the jews [House of Judah] who simply disappeared when God scattered them amongst the gentiles :-
Isa 7:8 ... within threescore and five years shall Ephraim be broken, that it be not a people.
[Ephraim was the largest and the dominant tribe within the House of israel]
One might think that was then the end of them, they just became gentiles amongst whatever nation they were scattered amongst, but God says otherwise indeed :-
Am 9:9 For, lo, I will command, and I will sift the house of Israel among all nations, like as corn is sifted in a sieve, yet shall not the least grain fall upon the earth.
1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:
10 Which in time past were not a people, but are now the people of God:
which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy.
De 32:21 They have moved me to jealousy with that which is not God; they have provoked me to anger with their vanities: and I will move them to jealousy with those which are not a people ; I will provoke them to anger with a foolish nation.
That then is why Jesus was sent ONLY to the house of Israel , because God would make the jews jealous of the knowledge of God and their Messiah [king come to re-unite the two houses of Israel] amongst these people who are after all only 'gentiles' ! ... but they are gentiles who ARE the children of Israel, descended from Jacob !
Mt 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.
Why do people not belive Jesus in this? It is because of the way the church was changed when rome took over christianity from the original Hebrews who followed Jesus and Rome started appointed it own priesthood which were not of Israel [and thus don't apparently actually have any scriptural basis as far as I can see for being priests at all ! :-
Ex 19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.
[note that Israel was never a kingdom of priests under the old covenant and they still are not yet .... that is because the priests of the new covenant with israel are not even ordained until Jesus returns and they are resurrected as necessary and then all translated to spirit, a perfect priesthood of the order of Melchizedek ['Melchisedec' in NT] of which Jesus Christ is the high priest [so why one may ask are there other orders of priests by all sorts of other names, following traditions of men , not of Israel , and claiming ordination before Jesus' return ???]
So Jesus and Paul BOTH actually sent their disciples forth to reach the paganised House of Israel scattered amongst the gentiles ... that is why there are both Jews and gentiles amongst the firstfruit 144,000 [Rev 7:3-8] even though all are true descendants of Jacob ...
So what did Jesus send his disciples [mostly Jews] forth to tell the house of Israel? ... the good news that he is the messiah [annointed king of Israel , christ of Israel] come to re-unite the two Houses of Israel and bring in the new covenant with the two Houses of Israel [Heb 8:6-13] .... and there's anoyther major differenece between scripture and traditions of men , the new covenant is explicitly with Israel 's two houses only, not anyone else , and it is only Israel who are unconditionally forgiven in it .... but the traditions of men assert that israel is not forgiven at all, that they have missed their chance ... it just ain't so in scripture ,so where did the churches get that one from ???
Heb 8:8 For finding fault with them , he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
....
12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
It is singular to say the least that most modern christian churches do not teach the same gospel about Israel that Jesus did or that he is the messiah come to re-unite Israel , neither do they see their task as reaching the House of Israel as Jesus instructed , neither do they accept that all priests of God are of Israel, nor that Israel are forgiven in the new covenant which is only with Israel....
somewhere then the majority of christianity went apostate and it can be traced back to the roman takeover from Jerusalem and the Hebrews ... in fact the changing of the rest day from the seventh Hebrew day to the first Roman day [the day of worship of the pagan Roman sun god, the day pagan Romans were used to pagan worshipping was used used to persecute the hebrew chrstains who kept the same seventh Hebrew day that Jesus kept]
I think that is probably enough to show the desperate need to re-interpret scripture inluding Israel back into it ....and throw out the traditions of men :-
Col 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
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