well, there's a huge gap of pre-lapsarianism, though what you're saying about Ben Adam often means so and so being from Adam, makes sense. I became confused when this was misused in a hubpage. You've brought much light into the subject. Thank you.I suppose my confusion comes from the notion that "Ben Adam" refers to "Adam before he sinned".
That's not what it means. It's use in Hebrew is used as an idiom meaning "human being", such as its use by the Prophet Ezekiel. Or the way it is used in Numbers, asking if God is a man or a son of man that he should lie.
In theory it could also refer to the immediate descendents of Adam, such as Seth, Cain, or Abel (i.e. Seth ben Adam); but this is not the typical usage in Scripture. In Scripture typical usage is simply "human being".
Now, when the Lord refers to Himself as "Son of Man", there is some conversation to be had, is the Lord using this term in its usual idomatic sense "human being", or is He drawing primarily from Second Temple Period language which uses the term (such as in Daniel) in a more messianic sense? This sense can also be found in non-Canonical Second Temple literature such as Enoch.
In any case, however, it has nothing to do with a pre-lapsarian Adam. Hence much of my confusion.
-CryptoLutheran
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